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Exam Code: SSCP
Exam Name: ISC (System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 254 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Instructions or code that executes on an end user's machine from a web browser is known
as __________ code.
A. Active X
B. JavaScript
C. Malware
D. Windows Scripting
E. Mobile
Answer: E

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NO.2 The ability to identify and audit a user and his / her actions is known as ____________.
A. Journaling
B. Auditing
C. Accessibility
D. Accountability
E. Forensics
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Security Reference Monitor relates to which DoD security
standard?
A. LC3
B. C2
C. D1
D. L2TP
E. None of the items listed
Answer: B

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NO.4 Passwords should be changed every ________ days at a minimum.
90 days is the recommended minimum, but some resources will tell you that 30-60 days is
ideal.
Answer: 90

NO.5 An attempt to break an encryption algorithm is called _____________.
Answer: Cryptanalysis

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NO.6 IKE - Internet Key Exchange is often used in conjunction with
what security standard?
A. SSL
B. OPSEC
C. IPSEC
D. Kerberos
E. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 Wiretapping is an example of a passive network attack?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 ____________ is a file system that was poorly designed and has numerous security flaws.
A. NTS
B. RPC
C. TCP
D. NFS
E. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.9 Is the person who is attempting to log on really who they say they are? What form of access
control does this questions stem from?
A. Authorization
B. Authentication
C. Kerberos
D. Mandatory Access Control
Answer: B

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NO.10 A standardized list of the most common security weaknesses and exploits is the
__________.
A. SANS Top 10
B. CSI/FBI Computer Crime Study
C. CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures
D. CERT Top 10
Answer: C

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NO.11 Trend Analysis involves analyzing historical ___________ files in order to look for patterns
of abuse or misuse.
Answer: Log files

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NO.12 Multi-partite viruses perform which functions?
A. Infect multiple partitions
B. Infect multiple boot sectors
C. Infect numerous workstations
D. Combine both boot and file virus behavior
Answer: D

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NO.13 _____ is the authoritative entity which lists port assignments
A. IANA
B. ISSA
C. Network Solutions
D. Register.com
E. InterNIC
Answer: A

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NO.14 DES - Data Encryption standard has a 128 bit key and is very difficult to break.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the concepts best describes Availability in relation to
computer resources?
A. Users can gain access to any resource upon request (assuming they have proper permissions)
B. Users can make authorized changes to data
C. Users can be assured that the data content has not been altered
D. None of the concepts describes Availability properly
Answer: A

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NO.16 There are 5 classes of IP addresses available, but only 3 classes are in common use today,
identify the three: (Choose three)
A. Class A: 1-126
B. Class B: 128-191
C. Class C: 192-223
D. Class D: 224-255
E. Class E: 0.0.0.0 - 127.0.0.1
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.17 If Big Texastelephone company suddenly started billing you for caller ID and call
forwarding without your permission, this practice is referred to as __________________.
Answer: Cramming

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NO.18 The ultimate goal of a computer forensics specialist is to ___________________.
A. Testify in court as an expert witness
B. Preserve electronic evidence and protect it from any alteration
C. Protect the company's reputation
D. Investigate the computer crime
Answer: B

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NO.19 When an employee leaves the company, their network access account should be
__________?
Answer: Disable

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NO.20 Which form of media is handled at the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI Reference
Model?
A. MAC
B. L2TP
C. SSL
D. HTTP
E. Ethernet
Answer: E

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NO.21 HTTP, FTP, SMTP reside at which layer of the OSI model?
A. Layer 1 - Physical
B. Layer 3 - Network
C. Layer 4 - Transport
D. Layer 7 - Application
E. Layer 2 - Data Link
Answer: D

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NO.22 What are some of the major differences of Qualitative vs. Quantitative methods of performing
risk analysis? (Choose all that apply)
A. Quantitative analysis uses numeric values
B. Qualitative analysis uses numeric values
C. Quantitative analysis is more time consuming
D. Qualitative analysis is more time consuming
E. Quantitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
F. Qualitative analysis is based on Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) formulas
Answer: A, C, E

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NO.23 One method that can reduce exposure to malicious code is to run
applications as generic accounts with little or no privileges.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.24 ______________ is a major component of an overall risk management program.
Answer: Risk assessment

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NO.25 What security principle is based on the division of job responsibilities - designed to prevent
fraud?
A. Mandatory Access Control
B. Separation of Duties
C. Information Systems Auditing
D. Concept of Least Privilege
Answer: B

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NO.26 A salami attack refers to what type of activity?
A. Embedding or hiding data inside of a legitimate communication - a picture, etc.
B. Hijacking a session and stealing passwords
C. Committing computer crimes in such small doses that they almost go unnoticed
D. Setting a program to attack a website at 11:59 am on New Year's Eve
Answer: C

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NO.27 Cable modems are less secure than DSL connections because cable modems are shared
with other subscribers?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.28 The act of intercepting the first message in a public key exchange and substituting a bogus key
for the original key is an example of which style of attack?
A. Spoofing
B. Hijacking
C. Man In The Middle
D. Social Engineering
E. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Answer: C

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NO.29 What is the main difference between computer abuse and
computer crime?
A. Amount of damage
B. Intentions of the perpetrator
C. Method of compromise
D. Abuse = company insider; crime = company outsider
Answer: B

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NO.30 Layer 4 in the DoD model overlaps with which layer(s) of the
OSI model?
A. Layer 7 - Application Layer
B. Layers 2, 3, & 4 - Data Link, Network, and Transport Layers
C. Layer 3 - Network Layer
D. Layers 5, 6, & 7 - Session, Presentation, and Application Layers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IL0-786
Exam Name: Intel (Designing Flexible Wireless LAN Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is multipathing?
A. radio signals being reflected, refracted, and absorbed
B. a method used by wireless Access Points to correctly route traffic
C. a part of the design process used to determine Access Point location
D. a method used by mobile units to determine the best Access Point to associate with
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of network should you use for wireless communication between a
workstation and its peripherals?
A. Wide Area Network (WAN)
B. Local Area Network (LAN)
C. Personal Area Network (PAN)
D. Satellite Area Network (SAN)
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are antennas that radiate a toroid-shaped pattern?
A. broadband
B. directional
C. omni-directional
D. multi-directional
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why should you use more than one antenna on an Access Point? (Choose two.)
A. The coverage area is larger.
B. An Access Point cannot operate with only one antenna.
C. Null zones within the coverage area are reduced or eliminated.
D. Reception is better if the transmitter is at the edge of the range.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Which statement is true about digital signals as a receiver moves further away from
the transmitter?
A. The gain is higher.
B. The amplitude is lower.
C. The amplitude is higher.
D. The delay spread increases.
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the width of a single channel used by FHSS systems?
A. 1 MHz
B. 2 MHz
C. 11 MHz
D. 22 MHz
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which type is ambient RF background noise?
A. wideband
B. sideband
C. edgeband
D. narrowband
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two are characteristics of narrow band RF transmissions? (Choose two.)
A. require smaller antenna radiators
B. have an inherent high level of diversity
C. occupy less RF space than wideband RF transmissions
D. are more susceptible to interference than wideband RF transmissions
Answer: CD

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NO.9 What is FHSS?
A. Full Heterodyne Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hash Streaming System
C. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
D. Function Harmonics Spread Sequence
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is DSSS?
A. Digital Signal Stream System
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
C. Doppler Sending Spread Spectrum
D. Designated System Spread Spectrum
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-M22
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Application Developer Tech Sales Mastery V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Why is IBM Rational Application Developer(RAD) important to SOA?
A. RAD is the Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) for SOA architecture.
B. SOA is a graphical extension to automated architecture. RAD graphical interface allows SOAautomat
ed architecture todevelop service components.
C. RAD does not support any features for SOA, so it is not important for SOA.
D. RAD has the capability to develop SOA pieces such as Web services,which can be an integral part of
an SOA.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which one of the following editors does not come with IBM Rational Application Developer?
A. WSDL Editor
B. XSL Editor
C. Java Visual Editor
D. Hibernate Mapping Editor
Answer:D

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NO.3 Which one of the following provides for remoteWSDL validation?
A. ServletWizard
B. Web Services Wizard
C. XpathWizard
D. SessionWizard
Answer:B

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NO.4 When usingAgent Controller to gather information about applications running on a remote system you
needto installAgent Controller:
A. On the same system as RAD is installed
B. On a remote system to which you would like to publish your application
C. On the remote system fromwhich the log files are imported
D. On the system where you runtest cases
Answer:B

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NO.5 What is the scriptable bytecode instrumentation (BCI) framework that is used to write Java codefragm
ents?
A. A Memory Leak Framework
B. A Probekit
C. A Profile Toolkit
D. A Snippet Generator
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 000-417
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Information Analyzer V8.0)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A company has determined a need for profiling a centralized data warehouse for business intelligence
reporting.
During the initial client discovery session, which three initial questions should be addressed? (Choose
three.)
A. Which data marts are generated?
B. Which data sources are contributors?
C. Which underlying issues are suspected?
D. Which users are subject matter experts?
E. Which are the referential integrity violations?
Answer: BCD

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NO.2 You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use DB2 as the analysis database, which statement
is true?
A. The analysis database is automatically created at installation.
B. You must install the analysis database after you install the suite.
C. The analysis database DSN is automatically created at installation.
D. You must configure the analysis database before you install the suite.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which architectural component applies to both Information Analyzer and AuditStage?
A. XMeta
B. domain
C. client interface
D. parallel engine
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two roles must be assigned to a user to complete the configuration of Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. data administrator
B. project administrator
C. database administrator
D. production administrator
Answer: AB

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NO.5 Which three steps must be completed to make a data source available for analysis in Information
Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. Define a host computer.
B. Import the source metadata.
C. Import a sample set of source records.
D. Define an ODBC connection to the data source.
E. Define an ODBC connection to the IADB repository.
Answer: ABD

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NO.6 For a data quality assessment project, which three roles are involved throughout the assessment?
(Choose three.)
A. data modeler
B. data analyst
C. ETL developer
D. business analyst
E. business subject matter expert
Answer: BDE

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NO.7 Which three steps must be performed to tell Information Analyzer where data is located? (Choose
three.)
A. Define a host.
B. Define a project.
C. Define a data store.
D. Define a data connection.
E. Define analysis settings.
Answer: ACD

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NO.8 A company has embarked on the implementation of a centralized data warehouse.
Data Quality Assessment will be addressed at which two points in the implementation project? (Choose
two.)
A. periodically during post-implementation
B. during the initial project plan development
C. during the analysis phase before actual design begins
D. during acceptance testing conducted after construction but before the warehouse is turned over for use
Answer: CD

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NO.9 You have an Information Analyzer installation in an environment where multiple servers and multiple
operating systems are available.
Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)
A. all layers on one RedHat Linux server
B. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server
C. Domain and Repository layers on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on another RedHat Linux
server
D. Domain layer on one RedHat Linux server, Engine layer on one AIX UNIX server, Repository layer on
another AIX UNIX server
Answer: AC

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NO.10 What must be installed prior to AuditStage?
A. .NET Framework
B. Information Server
C. Java Run-time Environment
D. Microsoft Data Access Components
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which analysis builds a complete set of all the column pairs between primary key columns and
remaining selected columns in selected tables?
A. column analysis
B. foreign key analysis
C. cross table analysis
D. primary key analysis
Answer: B

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NO.12 Given a review of a new column analysis, which review processes must be completed in sequence?
A. domain analysis, then format analysis
B. format analysis, then properties analysis
C. domain analysis, then rebuild inferences
D. properties analysis, then classification analysis
Answer: C

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NO.13 When planning a data quality assessment project, application owners have expressed reluctance to
provide real-time access to their source systems using Information Analyzer.
Which two concepts should be discussed and understood by the assessment team? (Choose two.)
A. data standardization needed
B. data transformation rules needed
C. timeliness of data and its effect on structural metadata
D. timeliness of data and its effect on data assessment results
Answer: CD

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NO.14 What are two architectural components of AuditStage? (Choose two.)
A. client interface
B. parallel execution engine
C. internal or external database
D. common services connector
Answer: AC

IBM exam prep   000-417   000-417

NO.15 Which statement is true with regards to publishing analysis results?
A. Reference tables can be created then published and accessed using QualityStage.
B. Categories can be created then published and accessed using Business Glossary.
C. The accepted primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using DataStage.
D. The candidate primary and foreign keys can be published then accessed using Business Glossary.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which method should be used to estimate disk space to store frequency distributions for a given
column based on the volume of data to be profiled?
A. Multiply the number of distinct values by 2000.
B. Multiply the total number of columns and the total number of rows.
C. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum column format size
plus 150.
D. Multiply the number of rows by the sum of the column length and the maximum number of formats plus
150.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two connectors are automatically available when defining a data source to Information Analyzer?
(Choose two.)
A. ODBCConnector
B. JDBCConnector
C. DataStageConnector
D. WebSphereMQConnector
Answer: AD

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NO.18 What are two valid ways of connecting AuditStage to a database? (Choose two.)
A. JDBC
B. federation
C. Information Analyzer
D. direct database connection
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Which three methods can be used to review the results of domain analysis? (Choose three.)
A. Examine each value individually.
B. Specify a range to determine the validity of the values.
C. Compare all of the values to the values in a reference table.
D. Specify a conditional test to determine the validity of the values.
E. Create an automated script to check the validity of values based on business requirements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.20 Which two statements are true when importing metadata describing a data source? (Choose two.)
A. Column definitions can be changed by the user during import.
B. Metadata can be discovered by using the Identify Next Level function.
C. Discovered metadata is automatically imported into the analysis database.
D. Metadata for table and column definitions can be discovered using the Identify All Levels function.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 000-649
Exam Name: IBM (Rarional Software Architect)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What indicates the level at which a model can be partitioned?
A. Class
B. Method
C. Diagram
D. Package
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which support does RSA provide for RAS artifacts? (Choose three.)
A. imports RAS artifacts
B. browses RAS repositories
C. converts RAS assets into zip files
D. creates and packages RAS artifacts
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 Which statement is true about Deployment Models?
A. Deployment Models are not supported in Rational Software Architect.
B. The Enterprise IT Design Model template includes a Deployment Model.
C. Deployment diagrams can be added to model templates to form Deployment Models.
D. The Deployment Model template and Analysis Model template both contain Deployment Models.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When should you consider partitioning a model into multiple files? (Choose two.)
A. when the model file becomes larger that 1 MB
B. when there are more than 10 packages in a model
C. when there are relationships to elements in more than one reference model
D. when the size or packaging structure of the model becomes unmanageable
Answer: AD

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NO.5 In RSA, which type of combined fragment is used in sequence diagrams to show the details of how one
object messages another?
A. optional fragment
B. messaging fragment
C. interaction use fragment
D. nested sequence fragment
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is true about Browse diagrams?
A. Browse diagrams are saved as .brx files.
B. You can change the layout of a Browse diagram.
C. Browse diagrams show all the elements of a given package.
D. Browse diagrams are driven by parameters and filters that you control.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Topic diagrams are defined based on _____.
A. design patterns
B. model templates
C. architectural discovery
D. a key model element and its relationships
Answer: D

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NO.8 How do you add RSA model report templates?
A. update your RSA install via the Rational Product Updater
B. create a new RSA plug-in that extends the reporting capabilities
C. add a new report template to the project that contains the model
D. create a new report template and add its corresponding report format entry in the reports.manifest file
in the reporting plug-in
Answer: D

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NO.9 To facilitate modeling, reusable assets can be used to share _____. (Choose four.)
A. profiles
B. models
C. patterns
D. transformations
E. JAVA test scripts
Answer: ABCD

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NO.10 Which statement is true about models and UML projects?
A. A UML project can only contain a single model.
B. Each UML project must contain a blank model.
C. A UML project can contain any number of models.
D. Models can only be added when the UML project is created.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-918
Exam Name: IBM (System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V11)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Both standard and temporary dbspaces are listed in the DBSPACETEMP configuration parameter or
environment variable. Which rule applies?
A. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space
exists.
B. Backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in temporary dbspaces if
adequate space exists. Sort temporary tables are specified by the PSORT_DBTEMP environment
variable.
C. Sort, backup, implicit, and non-logging explicit temporary tables are created in all available dbspaces if
adequatespace exists.
D. Explicit temporary tables created without the WITH NO LOG option are created in the root dbspace.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, how does an IDS database administrator or programmer ensure that only committed data
will be seen and that no locking errors will occur?
<e ip="918-a-3.jpg"></e>
A. Change user 1 isolation level to dirty read.
B. Change user 2 isolation level to dirty read.
C. Change user 1 isolation level to committed read last committed.
D. Change user 2 isolation level to committed read last committed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When determining the physical log size, what should you consider?
A. RTO_SERVER_RESTART configuration parameter
B. DYNAMIC_LOGS configuration parameter
C. PHYSBUFF configuration parameter
D. LOGFILES configuration parameter
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which memory area is used for log records for smart objects?
A. virtual portion of shared memory
B. logical log buffers
C. /tmp
D. DBSPACETEMP
Answer: B

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NO.5 A user wants to save SQL explain output to the file: /tmp/myexplain.out. Which syntax should be used?
A. set explain on file to /tmp/myexplain.out
B. set explain on file /tmp/myexplain.out
C. set explain file /tmp/myexplain.out
D. set explain file to /tmp/myexplain.out
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true for an hierarchical routing topology when setting up SQLHOSTS
server group?(Choose two.)
A. Root and nonroot servers only need to maintain their leaf node server groups.
B. Root and nonroot servers must each maintain all server groups within the enterprise.
C. Enterprise Replication will transmit exactly the SQLHOSTS information, there is no need to maintain
them.
D. Each leaf server must have SQLHOSTS information only for itself and its parent.
E. SQLHOSTS entries for nodes that do not directly connect are not required.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which two parameters influence the total size of the resident portion of shared memory? (Choose
two.)
A. RESIDENT
B. BUFFERS
C. LOCKS
D. SHMBASE
E. PHYSBUFF
Answer: CE

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NO.8 Which command would be used to monitor disk activity per chunk?
A. onstat -g iog
B. onstat -d
C. onstat -g iof
D. onstat -F
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the following 'onstat -g arc' information:
IBM Informix Dynamic Server Version 11.10.FC1 -- On-Line -- Up 45:18:13 -- 38912 Kbytes
num DBSpace Q Size Q Len Buffer partnum size scanner
Dbspaces - Archive Status
name number level date log log-position
rootdbs 1 0 02/11/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
dbs1 2 0 02/14/2007.22:01 43 0x5338c
1 02/14/2007.22:01 66 0x1b2e8
2 02/16/2007.22:01 75 0x1d2e8
On February 16, 2007, at 1:00 PM, a chunk in dbspace bs1 encountered hardware failure.
Which method will restore all of the data, to the point of failure, to a replacement disk drive?
A. a level 0 and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
B. a level 0 and 1 restore only
C. a level 0 and 1 restore followed by a logical log restore
D. a level 0, 1, and 2 restore followed by a logical log restore
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are receiving an error when trying to drop a chunk that you think is empty. Which command will
show you if any object is still allocating part of the chunk?
A. oncheck -pe
B. onstat -d
C. oncheck -cD
D. oncheck -cc
Answer:A

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NO.11 Which two protocols are used on a Linux platform for IPC connections? (Choose two.)
A. fast fiber
B. shared memory
C. stream pipe
D. named pipe
E. local loopback
Answer: BC

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NO.12 What will the setting "SQLTRACE level=LOW,ntraces=2000,size=2,mode=global" within the Informix
onconfig file record?
A. statement statistics, statement text, and list of table names
B. statement text, host variables, and statement iterators
C. statement statistics, statement text, and statement iterators
D. statement text, statement iterators, and database name
Answer: C

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NO.13 The table called "state" has lock mode set to row within an unbuffered logged database. The onconfig
file has
USELASTCOMMITTED 'COMMITTED READ' set. One user session has run the following:
begin work;
select * from state where code = "AK";
update state set sname = "ALASKA" where code = "AK";
The results from the SQL select statement run by user one was:
AK Alaska
Session two runs the following (session one is still connected):
set isolation to dirty read;
select * from state where code = "AK";
What will session two see when they run the above SQL statements?
A. AK and Alaska
B. AK and ALASKA
C. Error code 244 and isam 107.
D. The session waits until user one is finished processing.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A database administrator uses the following onconfig parameters:
TAPEDEV = /foo/resdev
How will this affect ontape backup?
A. ontape will use the directory /foo/resdev if it exists for storage space backup.
B. ontape will use the definitions for TAPEBLK from the file /foo/resdev.
C. ontape will write an informational message to the file /foo/resdev.
D. ontape will use the definitions for TAPESIZE from the file /foo/resdev.
Answer:A

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NO.15 An IDS server has its LRU_MIN_DIRTY set to 1 and its LRU_MAX_DIRTY set to 2. Occasionally the
checkpointblocks user transactions from doing updates to the database for too long. How should the
database administrator correct
this situation?
A. Set onconfig parameter AUTO_CKPT to 1 and follow any advice in online.log.
B. Increase the number of page cleaners (i.e. flushers).
C. Increase the buffer pool size.
D. Set the onconfig parameter RTO_SERVER_RESTART to "on".
Answer:A

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NO.16 You detected excessive memory usage that might be caused by a memory leak in the application.
Which twocommands would be useful in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. onstat -u
B. onstat -g sql -r 120
C. onstat -g ses -r 60
D. onstat -g mgm
E. onstat -g mem
Answer: CE

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NO.17 Given the following message log information:
15.56:29 Physical Recovery Started at Page (1:1210).
15:56:29 Physical Recovery Complete: 147 Pages Examined, 10 Pages Restored.
15:56:29 Logical Recovery Started.
15:56:29 10 recovery worker threads will be started.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery has reached the transaction cleanup phase.
15:56:32 Logical Recovery Complete.
5 Committed, 2 Rolled Back, 0 Open, 0 Bad Locks
What would be the reason for the difference in 'Pages Examined' and 'Pages Restored' during physical
recovery?
A. The database server might physically log a page image multiple times between checkpoints.
B. The physical recovery restores only the first logged page image.
C. It is an expected behavior.
D. The physical log size is too large.
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which type of backup and restore (BAR) utility would be suited for restoring a single table from a level 0
backup to a specific point in time?
A. onbar
B. ontape
C. archecker
D. onarchive
Answer: C

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NO.19 An Informix database server has been configured with the following parameters:
BAR_MAX_BACKUP 5
BAR_NB_XPORT_COUNT 4
BAR_XFER_BUF_SIZE 10
How many data buffers will be created during an onbar parallel backup attempt?
A. 50
B. 20
C. 40
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the sqexplain output in the exhibit, which SQL statement will make the est_rows column accurate?
<e ip="918-a-1.jpg"></e>
A. update statistics high for table
B. update statistics high for systables
C. update statistics high for table orders
D. update statistics high for table customer
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 000-255
Exam Name: IBM (Dev.wwIBM Rational appdev-Websphere software v6)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A developer is creating a Struts enabled application using the Web Diagram editor. The
resources in the editor that are gray and do not have bold label text are:
A.Private.
B.External.
C.Unrealized.
D.Interfaces.
Correct:C

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NO.2 A developer wishes to create a project that contains a mix of HTML files, JSP files, servlets, and
Java classes. Which option should the developer choose in the New Project wizard?
A.Dynamic Web Project
B.Static Web Project
C.Java Project
D.Server Project
Correct:A

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NO.3 Datasources created in the Application Deployment Descriptor editor can be accessed by:
A.Applications running on the server.
B.Applications in the current workspace.
C.Modules contained in the EAR file where the definition is made.
D.J2EE Application client modules accessing the server.
Correct:C

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes perspectives within Rational Application Developer?
A.A perspective is a collection of views that facilitate a particular development role.
B.A perspective can be customized with different editors, depending on the needs of the developer.
C.Perspectives can contain other perspectives.
D.Perspectives are opened as a result of launching external applications.
Correct:A

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NO.5 A company is designing a Web application. Which TWO of the following technologies provide a
model-view-controller framework?
A.Struts
B.Servlet
C.JSTL
D.JSF
E.SDO
Correct:A D

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NO.6 In which TWO of the following locations can the context root of a Dynamic Web project be
changed?
A.The Modules page of the Application Deployment Descriptor editor
B.The XML source of the application.xml file
C.From the J2EE dialog of the Properties of the Dynamic Web project
D.The source of the web.xml file
Correct:B C

IBM exam prep   000-255 test answers   000-255   000-255

NO.7 What can a developer do to allow quick access to a particular Help page?
A.In the main menu, click Help -> Bookmark to bring up a list of Help topics, browse to the desired page,
and click Add.
B.In the main menu, click Favorites -> Manage Favorites, and select the desired page from the list of Help
topics.
C.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click the Bookmark Document icon in the toolbar.
D.In the Help window, browse to the desired page, and click Favorites -> Add to Favorites from the menu.
Correct:C

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NO.8 A developer customizes the Java perspective and wants to save the changes as the default
perspective that is opened in the workspace. Which of the following actions would be BEST for
the developer to perform?
A.Choose Window -> Save Perspective As and name the new perspective MyJava; Choose Window ->
Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select MyJava and click Make Default.
B.Choose Window -> Save Perspective; Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives,
select Java and click Make Default.
C.Choose Window -> Preferences -> Workbench -> Perspectives, select Java and click Make Default.
D.Choose Window -> Perspective -> Save Current As Default.
Correct:A

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT supported by Page Designer?
A.ASP
B.HTML
C.JSP
D.JavaScript
Correct:A

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NO.10 An Enterprise Application project contains multiple Dynamic Web projects. All of the Web
projects use a set of common classes defined in a Java project. The common classes are still
under development and are changing daily. What is the BEST way to make the common classes
available to the Web projects at runtime?
A.Add the Java project as a Web Library Project in each of the WARs.
B.Add the Java project as a Project Utility JAR in the EAR and create a Java JAR Dependency in each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
C.Export the Java project as a JAR file and import it into the WebContent/WEB-INF/lib folder of each of
the Dynamic Web projects.
D.Export the classes of the Java project and import the individual class files into the
WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder of each of the Dynamic Web projects.
Correct:B

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NO.11 A developer wants to import a zip file into a project without expanding the contents of the file.
The Developer should use which of the following File -> Import features?
A.File System
B.Zip file
C.Resource file
D.J2EE Jar file
Correct:A

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NO.12 Which TWO of the following views allow a developer to see Struts resources organized by their
Struts-specific types?
A.Project Explorer
B.Java Browsing
C.Struts Gallery
D.Struts Explorer
E.Modules
Correct:A D

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NO.13 When a developer creates a servlet using the Servlet wizard, what is the purpose of the servlet
name?
A.It is required to be used as the servlet class name.
B.It is used in the default URL mapping.
C.It is used to create an interface to the servlet.
D.It is used for filter mapping.
Correct:B

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NO.14 A developer has a partially complete Web application at the C:\root\webApplication directory. In
order to continue development in Rational Application Developer, what could the developer do?
A.Open a new workspace at C:\root\webApplication.
B.Open a new workspace at C:\root, and create a new Web project called webApplication.
C.From any workspace, create a new Web project, setting the context root to C:\root\webApplication.
D.From any workspace, create a new Web project, and selectively import the files from
C:\root\webApplication.
Correct:D

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NO.15 What should be done to prevent the Server Selection dialog box from activating when a
developer runs an Enterprise Application from its context menu?
A.Select the "Set server as project default" option from the Server Selection wizard.
B.Select the "Do not prompt" option in the Servers view.
C.Create a new server and select the "Set server as workspace default" option in the Server Creation
wizard.
D.Add the project to the server from the server's context menu.
Correct:A

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NO.16 A developer has imported a new EAR file into a workspace. What is the result of selecting the
Enterprise Application and choosing Run -> Run on Server from its context menu?
A.The Server Selection dialog box is activated.
B.The "Add and remove projects" dialog is activated.
C.The Server Creation wizard is activated.
D.The Enterprise Application runs on the workspace default server.
Correct:A

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NO.17 Which TWO of the following can be configured from the Servlets page of the Web Deployment
Descriptor?
A.Filters
B.URL Mappings
C.Initialization parameters
D.Invoker Attributes
Correct:B C

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NO.18 Which of the following operations CANNOT be performed via the Insert Custom Tag dialog
when editing a JSP in Page Designer?
A.Import a tag library into the Web project.
B.Add a taglib descriptor to the JSP.
C.Add a tag to the JSP.
D.Add a custom JSP tag to the JSP.
Correct:C

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NO.19 What steps MUST be performed to add a Web project to a server?
A.Right-click on the Web project and select Add to Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
B.Right-click on an Enterprise Application project that contains the Web application and select Add to
Server Configuration. Select the desired server.
C.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select the Web
project from the Available projects list and click Add.
D.Right-click on the server in the Servers view and select Add and remove projects. Select an Enterprise
Application project that contains the Web application from the Available projects list and click Add.
Correct:D

IBM exam prep   000-255 test answers   000-255   000-255

NO.20 A standalone Java application creates a log file without specifying a path name. The log file will
be created in:
A.The product installation directory.
B.The bin subdirectory under the product installation directory.
C.The root directory of the project.
D.The package folder in which the main Java class is located.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 000-027
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two applications can be used to view actual costs for labor, materials, services, and tools?
(Choose two.)
A. Labor Reporting
B. Quick Reporting
C. Work Order Tracking
D. Assignment Manager
E. Work Order Management
Answer: BC

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.2 What must be assigned to establish an asset as Rotating?
A. Spare parts
B. Rotating Item
C. Classification
D. Operating Location
Answer: B

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NO.3 How can Service Items be reordered?
A. The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM) administrator can use the Reorder Items action in
the Inventory application to reorder all the Service Items required.
B. The IMAM administrator can create a purchase order (PO) for all the Service Items required and use
the Issue on Receipt check box for PO Lines related to Service Items.
C. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder all items or services and are issued without being received into
inventory.
D. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder items or services that are listed on approved work orders and
are issued without being received into inventory.
Answer: D

IBM exam   000-027   000-027

NO.4 Based on which two conditions can master Preventive Maintenance (PM) schedules be created?
(Choose two.)
A. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by PM
B. difference between completion date of previous work and system date is equal to Lead Time
C. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of the latest work orders for the asset
D. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by
PM
E. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of the latest work order for the
asset
Answer: AD

IBM   000-027   000-027

NO.5 With which level in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 are Purchase Contracts associated?
A. Set Level
B. System Level
C. Database Level
D. Organization Level
Answer: D

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NO.6 In a routing type workflow process, on which nodes does IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 use the
information specified to deliver the record to individuals?
A. Condition and Task
B. Manual Input and Task
C. Interaction and Manual Input
D. Manual Input and Subprocess
Answer: B

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NO.7 A work order has been created to perform corrective maintenance on a defective generator. All
required information has been provided in the work order, but required materials are not in stock and
have to be ordered. What is the status of the work order, after a maintenance manager has approved the
work order?
A. Approved (APPR)
B. Waiting on Materials (WMATL)
C. Waiting to be Scheduled (WSCH)
D. Waiting on Plant Condition (WPCOND)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Other than through the Purchase Orders application, how can Purchase Orders be created in IBM
Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. from an approved Lease, Rental, Master, or Purchase contract
B. from a Purchase Requisitions Create PO action, create the approved Purchase Order
C. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Master Contract, or a reorder process
D. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Purchase Contract, or a reorder process
Answer: D

IBM questions   000-027   000-027   000-027 braindump   000-027   000-027 test

NO.9 At which level do Commodity Codes exist within IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. Set level
B. Site level
C. System level
D. Organization level
Answer: A

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NO.10 In IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2, what does the Purchase Orders applications Distribute
Costs action do?
A. Distribute the line item cost among all lines.
B. Distribute the line item cost among all direct issue lines.
C. Distribute the line item cost among multiple GL accounts.
D. Distribute the purchase order cost among multiple GL accounts.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the maximum value (as a percentage of total cost) that an item identified as condition-coded
can have?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D

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NO.12 What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A

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NO.13 What should be done to add lines from a Purchase Request (PR) to a Requests for Quotation (RFQ)?
A. Hyperlink to the PR tab and add each line.
B. Go to the Vendors tab in the RFQ application and click Create PO.
C. Go to the Quotation tab in the RFQ application and select RFQ lines.
D. Select Action in the RFQ application and click Copy PR line item to RFQ.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more
Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item Master
application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is
managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are created
in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particular Lot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027   000-027 exam prep   000-027

NO.17 Where are the receipt of Services and Materials processed in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2
(IMAM)?
A. The Receipt of Services and Materials are processed in the Receiving application.
B. Services are rendered and Materials are received in the Purchase Order application.
C. Receipts of Services and Materials are systematically processed in IMAM transitionally.
D. Services are rendered and Materials are received using the Issues and Transfer application.
Answer: A

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027   000-027   000-027 test questions

NO.18 In order to use the item records at the site level, to what must the item be added?
A. Asset
B. Location
C. Storeroom
D. Rotating Asset
Answer: C

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NO.19 Can an item balance ever be allowed to be negative?
A. never
B. always
C. depends on which item
D. depends on if it is allowed in the Inventory Default settings
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled from lotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D

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NO.21 The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 administrator creates a new Start Center with updated Key
Performance Indicators. Which application must be used to associate the Start Center to users?
A. Users
B. People
C. Organizations
D. Security Groups
Answer: D

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NO.22 The Client has requested that once Terms and Conditions (Ts Cs) are attached to another record, the
Ts Cs should be unchangeable. How is this appropriately accomplished?
A. In the Contracts application, delete the Ts Cs from the record and enter a new row.
B. In the application using the specific Ts Cs, rename the Ts Cs and approve the record.
C. In the Terms and Conditions Application, uncheck the Editable box on the newly created term.
D. In the Terms and Conditions Application, change the status of the newly created term to Approved.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which two applications can be used by a user to report emergency work, if the user at least wants to
report downtime, classify the request, and report actuals? (Choose two.)
A. Job Plan
B. Quick Reporting
C. Labor Reporting
D. Work Order Tracking
E. Assignment Manager
Answer: BD

IBM demo   000-027   000-027 demo   000-027   000-027

NO.24 Company XYZ receives an invoice from one of its vendors. How is this processed in IBM Maximo
Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM)?
A. When an invoice is received by the company, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
receipt information, approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
B. All invoices are routed by IMAM to the Accounts Payable department for matching against existing
purchase requisitions (PR). Once the PR is confirmed with the proper approvals, the
Accounts Payable department will process payment.
C. When an invoice is received by company XYZ, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
Vendors Invoice information by creating a new record, match the Vendor Invoice to the
Purchase Order (PO), approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
D. When an invoice is received by the company XYZ, the user will go to the PO application, access the
PO Line tab, and insure that the receipt box has a Y. If the Y is showed, the invoice will be
closed, but if the Y is missing, the invoice will be routed back to the vendor for verification.
Answer: C

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NO.25 What is used to execute a task at a particular time against any application on a user-defined schedule
with user-defined parameters?
A. Sets
B. Workflow
C. Cron Task
D. Notification
Answer: C

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.26 What must be done in order to automatically close the purchase requisition (PR) after one or more
purchase orders (PO) have been created?
A. All PR lines must be assigned to a PO.
B. The PR must be in the Approved status.
C. The PR must enter the workflow process.
D. All manual company input fields must be completed.
Answer: A

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NO.27 What should be done if a company decides to stop doing business with a vendor?
A. Notify buyers using Workflow.
B. Delete the Company Master record.
C. Set the Company record status to DISQUAL.
D. Check the Disqualified Vendor check box on the Company record.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which status will prevent an invoice from being cancelled?
A. Hold
B. Entered
C. Approved
D. Waiting for Approval
Answer: C

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NO.29 Through which action are Currency Codes created?
A. select New Row in Currency Codes application
B. select Action Currency Codes in the Database Configuration application
C. select an Organization in the Currency Codes application and add a new row
D. select the Base Currency lookup in the Organizations application and add a new row
Answer: A

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NO.30 What is the use of work assets on safety plans?
A. The work asset determines to which assets and locations a safety plan can be applied.
B. Only safety plans with associated work assets can be used in combination with job plans.
C. The safety plan can only be applied to work orders with the same asset or location associated.
D. The work assets combined with the work on a job plan dictate which safety information is required.
Answer: D

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