2013年9月30日星期一

IBM certification 000-N20 exam questions and answers come out

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Exam Code: 000-N20
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Enterprise Modernization Technical Sales Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer wants to simplify the process of connecting their traditional mainframe
applications
with Web 2.0 front-ends. Which feature of IBM Rational Developer for System z best meets their
needs?
A. EGL
B. CICS Service Flow
C. Service Component Architecture
D. Unit Test
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which feature of IBM Rational Developer for System z reduces host CPU usage by requiring
fewer
program compiles on z/OS?
A. SCA tooling
B. workstation syntax checking
C. integrated business development language
D. CICS Service Flow Modeler
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about logical partitions (LPARs) in z/OS?
A. Each LPAR must have a dedicated processor.
B. Multiple small machines are more cost effective than a single large machine with multiple
LPARs.
C. Each LPAR must have a dedicated disk device.
D. Each LPAR runs its own operating system.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two IBM software products packaged with z/OS in the IBM Rational Development
and
Test Environment for System z? (Choose two.)
A. JBoss Application Server
B. CICS Transaction Server
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Cognos BI for Linux on System z
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the CICS Service Component Architecture capabilities of IBM Rational
Developer for System z?
A. to develop of a comprehensive web service that collects and processes data from multiple
sources
B. to offload development MIPS from the production server to a virtual z/OS environment on an
x86 Linux server
C. to manage application components that provide a common programming interface for service
invocation
D. to support multi-platform development with common tools for z/OS,Windows,UNIX,and Linux
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which benefit do customers receive by adding Rational Business Developer to the Integrated
Solution for System z Development?
A. personal z/OS testing environment for small-scale development
B. optimized Java development for IBM middleware
C. simplified development of Web 2.0 and SOA applications without Java language skills
D. quickly transform green screen applications into web or mobile device interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are two ways snapshots are used in Rational Team Concert? (Choose two.)
A. to capture the current state of a project plan
B. to preserve the source code used for a given build
C. to provide atomic changes to sets of files
D. to show the amount of source control activity that happened over a given time
Answer: A,B

IBM test   000-N20   000-N20

NO.8 An enterprise organization manages their mainframe application development separately
from
their projects on other platforms. Their processes and tools are disconnected, often resulting in
delayed time to market. Which component of the IBM Integrated Solution for System z
Development provides a common infrastructure for source control and change management?
A. Rational Developer for System z
B. Rational Quality Manager
C. Rational Requirements Composer
D. Rational Team Concert
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are two drawbacks to ISPF green screen tools for mainframe application development?
(Choose two.)
A. inability to connect remotely to the mainframe
B. inability to create cross-platform projects
C. unappealing user interface
D. no support for multiple users
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 A customer wants the most comprehensive view of their asset information with the ability to
drill
down to the desired level of detail. Which IBM Rational Asset Analyzer interface should they use?
A. RESTful
B. ISPF client
C. Eclipse plug-in
D. browser-based
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-452
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Storwize V7000 Technical Solutions V2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the preferred replication method that could achieve best application performance
with
reduced network requirements host performance that is independent of the replication, and RPO
higher (with default of 10 minutes)?
A. Metro Mirror
B. Global Mirror
C. Global Mirror with Change Volumes
D. SAN Volume Controller Split cluster
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the IBM System Storage Easy Tier mode that is enabled for a storage pool with a single
tier of storage to collect usage statistics only for all the volumes in the pool?
A. Monitor
B. Easy tier
C. Automatic
D. Evaluation
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer is considering the replication of data between two Storwize V7000 systems using
an
existing, shared inter- site link. The technical specialist has been requested to investigate whether
or not this proposal is viable.
To begin the assessment what information should the specialist request for this opportunity?
A. The Recovery Point Objective and the application(s)
B. The application(s) and the amount of data to be replicated
C. The capacity of the inter-site link and the distance between sites
D. The amount of peak change data to be replicated and the capacity of the inter-site link
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are two advantages of implementing Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager with Storwize
V7000 in a customer’s VMware environment? (Select two)
A. Migrate underutilized virtual machine images to lower tier storage
B. Software snapshots are deleted from primary datastore to help preserve space
C. Hardware snapshots can be utilized for virtual machine recovery and virtual volume restore
D. Tivoli Storage FlashCopy Manager uses vCenter APIs to integrate with Tivoli Storage Manager
for long term retention
E. Further storage reduction by moving VMDK files to a Tivoli Storage Productivity Center storage
pool for long term retention
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 What statement is true regarding Snapshots in a Storwize V7000 Unified NFS environment?
A. Snapshots are space-efficient and writeable.
B. Snapshots use a dedicated/reserved Snapshot area.
C. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Copy-on-write.
D. Snapshots are space-efficient and use Redirect-on-write.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Customer requirements show only iSCSI and CIFS access will be required for a Storwize V7000
Unified solution. How many Fibre Channel ports will be utilized on the control enclosures?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

IBM   000-452   000-452 test

NO.7 In the Storwize V7000.,what is the Node Canister?
A. A group of 5 drives
B. The controller ERU
C. The power supply/fan ERU
D. Disk expansion interconnect ERU
Answer: B

IBM test answers   000-452   000-452 test

NO.8 During a demonstration, the technical specialist was asked to configure performance
monitoring
data collection for a Storwize V7000.
How should the technical specialist respond?
A. Basic performance monitoring is automatic, no configuration is necessary
B. Basic performance monitoring is only available through the mobile dashboard
C. Tivoli Storage Productivity Center is required to perform basic performance monitoring
D. Basic performance monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 and detailed performance
monitoring is automatic on the Storwize V7000 Unified
Answer: A

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NO.9 Describe the key competitive advantage of IBM integrated Real-time Compression (RtC) over
EMC and HP compression technology.
A. Operates on active primary data
B. Achieves up to 40% better compression rates
C. Provides up to 200% performance improvement
D. Supports faster and more efficient data copies for online backup
Answer: A

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NO.10 Storwize V7000 volume mirroring creates more resilience in which of the following methods?
A. Creates two copies of a storage pool
B. Mirror a volume between two separate Storwize V7000 systems
C. Allows both controller nodes to provide simultaneous read access
D. Migrates volumes between storage pools that have different extent sizes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-318
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V8.5 Core Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A system administrator manages a WebSphere Application Server environment which uses a
Federated Repository consisting of multiple LDAP servers. The first LDAP server is the corporate,
highly-available LDAP server and contains most of the users. The second LDAP server contains
only the administrative users and is run on a local system which is restarted regularly. To
maximize the availability of the Federated Repository, what should the system administrator do?
A. Set the second LDAP server as a backup server.
B. Add both LDAP servers to the High Availability Manager's core group.
C. Use a TAI (Trust Association Interceptor) to aggregate the LDAP servers.
D. Enable Allow operations if some of the repositories are down.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is accurate regarding business-level applications?
A. A business-level application contains application binary files.
B. Only WebSphere artifacts are contained in a business-level application.
C. The business-level application function introduces new application programming interfaces
(APIs).
D. Make a Java EE application a business-level application and add it to another business-level
application.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A system administrator needs to deploy an enterprise application to a WebSphere
Application
Server environment. Before starting the deployment process, the administrator uses the IBM
Assembly and Deploy Tool (IADT) to inspect the EAR and notices that it is enhanced. Since
enhanced EARs are not allowed in their runtime environment, the system administrator needs to
unenhance the EAR. How can the system administrator successfully remove the enhancements?
A. Use WebSphere Customization Toolbox (WCT) to unenhance the EAR.
B. Disable the application scoped resources in the application deployment descriptor.
C. Remove the META-INF/ibmconfig folder from the project before exporting the EAR.
D. Make sure that Process embedded configurations is not selected when exporting the EAR.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An application development team has developed a new version of an application that needs to
be
rolled out to a selected group of users for testing while the other users can continue to access the
old version of the application. What configuration should the system administrator do in order to
achieve this?
A. Perform a rollout on an application edition.
B. Perform a rollout on an application edition and establish routing policies.
C. Install an application edition and establish routing policies.
D. Activate concurrent application editions and establish routing policies.
Answer: D

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NO.5 A system administrator has added a server cluster as a member of a service integration bus.
The
system administrator needs to configure one messaging engine for each server in this cluster and
to have a failover location for each messaging engine. Which messaging engine policy should the
system administrator configure to achieve this?
A. Scalability
B. High availability
C. Scalability with high availability
D. Custom policy using the Quorum attribute
Answer: C

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NO.6 A system administrator is monitoring a web application and needs to find the slowest JSP page
when a typical client load is run against the server. How can the system administrator find it?
A. Analyze the thread dump.
B. Use the HPEL Log Viewer to view traces.
C. Use the Log Analyzer to view the SystemOut logs
D. Use the Tivoli Performance Viewer (TPV) and view the Servlet Summary reports.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A system administrator has just built a WebSphere Application Server node to replace a node
lost
to disk failure. The system administrator wishes to reincorporate this node into the existing
WebSphere Application Server cell and use the prior configuration information. Unfortunately, the
backup of the cell is extremely out of date. What should the system administrator use to
accomplish this task?
A. wsadmin
B. addNode
C. wsimport
D. manageprofiles
Answer: B

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to control which staff members have access to manage certain
application servers. They choose to use fine grained control and map the staff members to only
those specific application servers to which they need access. What does the system administrator
need to do to accomplish this?
A. Add custom properties to each of the application servers with role mappings for each staff
member
B. Use an Administrative Authorization Group to map the staff members and roles to the
application servers.
C. Create a security domain and add the application servers with the staff members in the role
definitions.
D. Create a custom user registry which prevents authorization requests to the application servers
not in the desired list.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A system administrator needs to install IBM Installation Manager on a remote host using
Flexible
management. To do so, on which host machine should the system administrator download the
Installation Manager "kits"? (choose 2)
A. Job Manager
B. Remote host
C. On Demand Router
D. Administrative Agent
E. Deployment Manager
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 In a test environment, a system administrator has configured an external HTTP in the DMZ that
is
routing to a cluster of application servers. The administrator wants to achieve high results and
performance when routing and prioritizing incoming requests to the back-end cluster. How can the
system administrator achieve this task?
A. Configure a cluster of external HTTP servers.
B. Enable the prefer local option on the cluster members.
C. Setup a Caching Proxy server between the external web server and the application server.
D. Place an On Demand Router (ODR) between the external web servers and the application
servers.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-596
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.2 Implementation)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

000-596 (IBM Security Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.2 Implementation) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-596.html

NO.1 If using the IBM Security Access Manager Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.2 (ISAM ESSO) adapter,
what is a prerequisite if the IMS Server is configured for Enterprise Directory password sync?
A. The Active Directory (AD) account must exist before the ISAMESSO account can be
provisioned.
B. No ISAM ESSO password policies can be set up; only the corporate AD password policies
apply.
C. The IMS account ID must include the domain if the IMS account is provisioned before the AD
account.
D. No prerequisites on accounts; all restrictions from earlier releases have been removed from the
ISAM ESSO release.
Answer: A

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NO.2 After an administrator has revoked a user account from the IBM Security Access Manager
Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.2 (ISAM ESSO) Server, how can a user access the same account?
A. Re-cache the wallet
B. Change the password
C. Re-login with proper user name and password
D. Delete the user from SAM ESSO and sign up with the same user account
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the default log level for an installed AccessAgent on a client system?
A. Log Level 1
B. Log Level 2
C. Log Level 3
D. Log Level 4
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true regarding Serial ID Service Provider Interface (SPI) API?
A. SPI specifies a set of functions to enable biometric support.
B. SPI specifies a set of functions to enable Mobile ActiveCode.
C. SPI is a programmatic interface intended for integrating AccessAgent with third-party¡ ¯ Serial ID
devices used for two factor authentication.
D. SPI must be installed on every node in an IBM WebSphere Application Server cluster in order
to enable second factor authentication support.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has updated an enterprise application and IBM Security Access Manager
Enterprise
Single Sign-On V8.2 does not inject credentials anymore. What can be done?
A. Install the latest fix pack on all AccessAgents and check if the application works.
B. Use AccessStudio to test the new application and understand what has changed in the
application¡ ¯s signature. Update the AccessProfile to match the new updated application. Replace
the AccessProfile on the IMS Server.
C. Erom AccessStudio, launch the updated application and use the AccessAgent.log file to
understand what has changed in the application¡ ¯s signature. Update the AccessProfile to match
the new updated application. Replace the AccessProfile on the IMS Server.
D. Update the system policies to enable AccessProfile Test mode. Troubleshoot the updated
application then update the AccessProfile on the IMS Server. Wait for the next AccessAgent
synchronization for the profile to be sent from the IMS Server to the AccessAgent. Eventually
disable the AccessProfile Test mode from the system policies.
Answer: B

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NO.6 How can performance of a remote AccessAgent in a Citrix deployment be improved?
A. Remove the profiles from the wallet
B. Set the machine policy to cache the user wallet
C. Set the machine policy to query the IMS Server for credentials
D. Set the machine policy to synchronize the wallet every 30 seconds
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which rights are required for lookup user while configuring a user repository for IBM Security
Access Manager for Enterprise Single Sign-On V8.2 users?
A. Admin rights
B. Lookup rights
C. Replication rights
D. Back Up Operator rights
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-237
Exam Name: IBM (IBM B2B Integration-Network-Managed File Transfer Sales Mastery Test v1 (000-M237))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which of the following IBM/Sterling solutions provides "at rest" data encryption?
A. IBM Sterling Connect:Direct
B. IBM Sterling Secure Proxy
C. IBM Sterling File Gateway
D. IBM Sterling Control Center
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

IBM original questions   00M-237   00M-237   00M-237
Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 247, Security, 3rd
bulleted point)

NO.2 What can happen when data such as purchase order information is incorrectly re-keyed into
internal business systems and applications?
A. Decrease in inventory costs.
B. Late deliveries & penalties such as charge backs.
C. Increased customer satisfaction & sales.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 According to a study performed by IDC, customers who have implemented IBM Sterling File
Gateway have seen a ______ reduction in labor costs related to troubleshooting edge-based file
transfer activity
A. 65%
B. 50%
C. 38%
D. 90%
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following represents a good opportunity for IBM Sterling B2B Integrator?
A. An organization seeking secure, process-driven partner integration.
B. An organization seeking to extend their SOA and ESB infrastructures to B2B partners.
C. Customers with multiple data movement patterns and point solutions (silos) needing to
consolidate on a strategic platform.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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6. File transfer challenges are commonly seen in which industry?
A. Government
B. Telecommunications
C. Distribution and Logistics
D. Manufacturing
E. All of the above.
Answer: C

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7. IBM Sterling File Gateway is IBM's multi-protocol "_______" communication solution for
secure B2B file exchange.
A. edge
B. cloud
C. internal
D. ESB
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/(bulleted point #1)
8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of IBM Sterling File Gateway that helps customers
ensure that they are compliant with regulatory requirements?
A. Auditing capabilities.
B. Access controls for file transfer activity.
C. Secure file transfer protocols.
D. Encryption of files both in-flight and at rest.
E. All of the above features help customers ensure that they are compliant with regulatory
requirements.
Answer: A

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Reference:http://www-01.ibm.com/software/commerce/managed-file-transfer/products/filegatew
ay/features.html(topic: management and visibility, 4thbulleted point)

NO.5 How does IBM Sterling B2B Integrator achieve B2B Process Automation?
A. Using a proprietary scripting language.
B. By means of a visual workflow modeler.
C. Writing new Java code for each process.
D. Through manually routing messages.
Answer: A

IBM exam prep   00M-237 certification   00M-237   00M-237
Reference:http://www.redbooks.ibm.com/redbooks/pdfs/sg247927.pdf(page 6, topic 1.3.4, last
paragraph)

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Exam Code: 00M-513
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with AIX Technical Sales Professional - v2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 How many hot-plug PCIe slots are supported in the Power 720 and Power 740 severs?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which layer of Dynamic Infrastructure mediates the service requestors access to applications
and
information?
A. Security
B. Service Management
C. Virtual IT Infrastructure
D. Physical IT Infrastructure
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which type of memory is used in POWER7 systems?
A. DDR2
B. DDR3
C. SDRAM
D. DIMM3
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which feature is included in all of the VMControl Editions?
A. Deploy virtual images
B. Resource Pool Management
C. Virtual Machine Relocation
D. Maintain virtual images in centralized library
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is a focus area during the Pre-sale TDA?
A. Installation Plan
B. Power requirements
C. Services and Support
D. Migrated devices and features
Answer: C

IBM pdf   00M-513   00M-513

NO.6 Which Power Systems server supports Concurrent Add?
A. Power 740
B. Power 750
C. Power 755
D. Power 780
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement is true about the capabilities of the PCIe 8Gb Fiber Channel adapter?
A. NPIV enabled
B. Supports 2, 4, 6, or 8 Gbps traffic
C. PCIe x8 architecture
D. AIX, Linux, and IBM i are supported
Answer: D

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NO.8 How many 12X I/O loops are supported on Power 710 and Power 730 servers?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a POWER7 workload-optimizing feature?
A. FFDC
B. ASMI
C. MinCore
D. TurboCore
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which statement is true regarding PCIe-based SSDs on POWER7 servers?
A. 8 SSD bays on card
B. Up to 708 GB per card
C. 2, 4, or 8 SSD modules per adapter
D. Can be configured on the Power 795 server
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-955J
Exam Name: IBM (High Volume Storage Fundamentals V2 (000-955日本語版))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 会社は 1TB の nearline SAS ドラ゗ブ に 20TB のゕーカ゗ブ? デ ータを保存することを望
みます。どの RAID レベルがゕーカ゗ブ? データを格納するために保護および最低の RAID オ
ーバーヘッドの最高水準を提供するでしょうか。
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 10
Answer: B

IBM study guide   000-955J   000-955J   000-955J

NO.2 顧客は停止から生き残るとビジネス 継 続性を提供する能力 に 関心を持っています 。 下
記のどの 2 つが Service Level Agreement(SLA) を決定するのを支援するでしょうか。 (2 つ選
んでください)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Storage Virtualization
C. Storage Tiering
D. Network Topology
E. Recovery Time Objective
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 開発者はストレ ージ管理者から 2 TB のストレージを要請しました。 ストレージ管理者
は開発者に 200 GB の物理的なストレージを割り当てましたが、 彼らが 2 TB のストレー ジを
持っているように、開発者に表示されます。このテクノロジーは何と呼ばれますか。
A. LUN マスキング
B. シーク? プロビジョ ニング
C. シン? プロビジョニ ング
D. デゖスク? パーテゖショニング
Answer: C

IBM   000-955J   000-955J test questions   000-955J

NO.4 テクニカルなデ リバリー? ゕセスメントの異なるタ゗プは何ですか。
A. Self 、Peer と Expert
B. Pre-TDA, Post-TDA
C. Level 1 、Level 2 と Level 3
D. Pre-Sale 、Pre-install と Post-install
Answer: A

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NO.5 顧客は 1 つのより大きなス゗ッチに終わるように 2 つのフゔ ゗バーチャネル? ス゗ッチ
を一緒に接続したいと考えています。これはどのように達成することができますか。
A. ZoneSets を作成する
B. マルチプロトコル· ルータを追加する
C. サービス品質を有 効にする
D. フルフゔブリック を有効にする ISL を構成する
Answer: D

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NO.6 顧客は異なるサ ゗トにある 2 つの DS3524 システムを持っています。サ゗トはそれら
の間に専用の゗ーサネ ット接続を使用してい ます。彼らは拡張リモ ート· ミ ラ ー リ ン グ を使
用したいと思っています。 どのプロトコルがこれらのシステムを接続するために使用される
でしょうか。
A. FCoE
B. FCIP
C. SAN
D. iSCSI
Answer: B

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NO.7 顧客の既存の SAN とサーバー? ゗ンフラストラクチャが提案されたストレージ? ソリュ
ーションでサポートされるかどうか、どの IBM ツールによって技術的な専門家が判断でき
るでしょうか。
A. eConfig
B. System Sales Manual
C. Standalone Solutions Configuration Tool
D. System Support Interoperability Center
Answer: D

IBM original questions   000-955J   000-955J

NO.8 次のどれが将来的には SAN ストレージを提供することを計 画している顧客のため に
DS3500 の魅力的な価 値提案ですか。
A. 自動階層化機能を 追加する
B. 高度に統合された IBM サーバーとストレージ? ソリューションを提供する
C. 主要な゗ンターフ ェ゗ス? オプションの広い範囲は柔軟性と選択肢を増加させる
D. 集中 さ れ たネ ッ トワ ー ク 能力 は 最少 の 投資 で ゕ プリ ケ ーシ ョ ンと エ ネ ルギ ー 要件 を 満た

Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-276
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Business Process Manager Express or Standard Edition V8.0, BPM Application Development)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a high profile process
application and is now ready to deploy the solution into the test environment. The application
developer has been told to allow one peer developer and the technical team lead to review and
approve the work before it can be installed onto the test server. The application developer's
manager has requested that the process of gathering these approvals be automated for auditing
purposes. What steps must the BPM application developer take in order to fulfill this requirement?
The BPM application developer must:
A. enable governance on the high profile process and use wsadmin to install the process.
B. create a business process definition, inside of the high profile process application, to implement
the approvals governance process.
C. ask a user with the administrative authority to create a System Governance toolkit dependency to
create a process application that will be used for governance.
D. ensure that there is a task in the governance process that will allow a designated person to install
the process, using Process Center, after all approvals have been received.
Answer: C

IBM   000-276 test questions   000-276   000-276

NO.2 A BPM application developer is developing a BPM solution in a process application called
'Auto Loan Review Process' (ALREV). ALREV has an existing dependency on a toolkit called 'Financial
Calculation Services' (FCSERV). The developer is asked to update an integration service in FCSERV
and use that new service in ALREV.
What steps must the developer take to ensure that ALREV will utilize the new service created in
FCSERV?
A. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update the dependency of ALREV from the FCSERV toolkit
B. 1. Update the integration service in FCSERV
2.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV from the ALREV process application
C. 1. Create a new integration service in ALREV
2.Move the new integration service from ALREV to FCSERV
3.Take a snapshot of FCSERV
D. 1. Take a snapshot of FCSERV
2.Update the integration service in FCSERV
3.Update dependency on FCSERV in the ALREV process application
Answer: B

IBM test questions   000-276   000-276 original questions

NO.3 A BPM application developer has completed the development of a process application. The
team lead has now directed the application developer to install the snapshot onto a staging server
for additional testing before it is moved into production. Assuming the default Process Server
settings are in place, what minimum level of access must the developer have in order to install the
snapshot onto the staging server? The application developer must have, at a minimum:
A. write access to the process application with no additional group membership.
B. write access to the process application and must be a member of the process-center-installgroup
as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
C. administrative access to the process application with no additional group membership.
D. administrative access to the process application and must be a member of the
process-centerinstall-group as defined in the 100Custom.xml file.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After deploying a snapshot onto the production server, the BPM application developer wants
to have two development versions of the process application, one for the resolution of issues that
needs to get fixed immediately in production and one for the development of new features. How
can the BPM application developer obtain the necessary development versions without creating a
new process application?
A. Create a new snapshot for the process application.
B. Create a clone of the snapshot installed in production.
C. Create a new track from the snapshot installed in production.
D. Import the snapshot installed in production into the Process Center.
Answer: C

IBM certification   000-276 test questions   000-276   000-276

NO.5 A BPM application developer needs to create custom SQL queries targeting the Business
Performance Data Warehouse to satisfy a customer's reporting requirements. While browsing the
system catalog of the database management system, the developer notices tables and views
corresponding to the tracking groups defined in the process application. Which database artifacts
should the developer query to obtain only the actively tracked data? The BPM application developer
should query the:
A. views, because the views contains more recent data than the tables.
B. views, because the views contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
C. tables, because the tables contains more recent data than the views.
D. tables, because the tables contain only the data resulting from the updated tracking definitions.
Answer: B

IBM   000-276   000-276   000-276   000-276 original questions

NO.6 A BPM application developer is developing assets at a company with the following BPM
infrastructure:
A) One Process Center environment -The BPM application developer has all security privileges
required to access this environment
B) Three runtime environments- Test, Staging, and Production -Each runtime environment is a two
node, clustered environment -They are all configured as "online" environments -The BPM
application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has all security privileges required to access those environments
The BPM application developer has been asked to create a Saved Search in each environment using
the Process Admin Console. How many times must the BPM application developer open a Process
Admin Console to make this change?
A. 1 time, since the Process Center environment's Process Admin console manages all online
environments
B. 2 times, once for the Process Center environment and once for the runtime environments
C. 4 times, since each environment has it's own Process Admin console
D. 7 times, since each node in each environment has its own Process Admin console
Answer: C

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NO.7 The business owner of a purchasing process has requested a report that displays the total time
of three activities. What should the BPM application developer use to send the data to the
Performance Data Warehouse to create this report?
A. A Timing Interval
B. A Service Level Agreement
C. Exposed Process Variables
D. Shared Business Objects
Answer: A

IBM test answers   000-276 dumps   000-276

NO.8 A process owner of an insurance company requests to receive an email if the amount of a loan
is higher than $50,000. After creating the custom Key Performance Indicator (KPI) Amount (currency)
and associating it to the activity, how should the BPM application developer configure the
Assignment Setting to set the value of the KPI to the amount of the loan object? Uncheck "use KPI
defaults", and apply the following settings.
A. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.local.loan.amount
B. Assignment Type: Select Absolute Value Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
C. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.perf.value = tw.local.loan.amount
D. Assignment Type: Select custom JavaScript Value: tw.local.loan.amount
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-225
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and AIX & Linux Technical Sales Skills - v2)
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Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A prospective client is interested in running SAP on Linux. Which of the following would make
Linux on Power a better solution than Linux on x86?
A. ISV support
B. Memory Chipkill
C. Threads per core
D. Kernel optimization
Answer: C

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NO.2 What capability does Role Based Access Control (RBAC) provide to users?
A. Assume a default role at login
B. Control access to system logs
C. Perform system operations associated with roles
D. Assume the role of root under certain circumstances
Answer: C

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NO.3 How is AIX licensing and upgrade entitlement packaged?
A. AIX SWMA
B. AIX Warranty
C. AIX Service Pack
D. AIX Basic License
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer wants to mix different applications in one LPAR to reduce administration costs.
The applications must be prioritized with high and low workload.
What is the most simple way to support these requirements?
A. WPAR
B. Versioned LPAR
C. WPAR Manager
D. AIX Profile Manager
Answer: A

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NO.5 What PowerSCfeature provides a mechanism to prevent an attacker, who has gained
unauthorized access to an LPARI from deleting evidence records of the source of intrusion?
A. Trusted Audit
B. Trusted Firewall
C. Trusted Logging
D. Trusted Surveyor
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following products can move an application between servers while the
application is running?
A. Application Manager
B. AIX Standard Edition
C. PowerVM Standard Edition
D. Workload Partition Manager
Answer: D

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NO.7 How is SuSe Linux Enterprise Server 11 licensed on Power Systems servers?
A. Per core
B. Per server
C. Per socket
D. Per instance
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-783J
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex Technical Support V2 (000-783日本語版))
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 AIX を実行してい るパワー顧客は、彼らが POWER7 750 から PureFlex に AIX オペレーテ
ゖング· システム環境のベゕメタルの移行を実行する方法を尋ねます。 顧客は AIX の現行バー
ジョンの上にいます。下記のどれがこのタスクを達成しますか。
A. mksysb 復元
B. DVD からの BOS ゗ンストール
C. ストレージ? コピー? サービス
D. Tivoli ストレージ? マ ネージ ャー
Answer: A

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NO.2 顧客は IBM i5 /OS V5R4 を実行する複数 の IBM POWER5 サーバ ーを持っています。彼ら
は PureFlex p260 計算 ノードの上にこれらのサーバーを統合することを望んいます。変更を
行うことの利点は何でしょうか。
A. OS ゕップグレードは必要とされない
B. VMware の内の IBM i5 /OS を実行する
C. SMT4 はコゕにつき 4 つのスレッドを許す
D. ゕップグレードさ れた IO プロセッサが利用可能である
Answer: C

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NO.3 顧客は PureFlex Express を考慮していま すが、 彼らは自分のラックを使用すると主張し
ます。
下記のどれが PureSystem 技術専門家のための正確なレスポンスですか。
A. PureSystem ノード は RPQ を備えた BladeCenter H で゗ンストールされるかもしれない。
B. シャシーは PureFlex に特有の IBM ラックに゗ンストールする必要がある。
C. シャシーは BladeCenter に特有の IBM ラッ クに゗ンストールされることができる。
D. 顧客は non PureSystem ラックを使用するかもしれないが、それは推奨方法ではない。
Answer: D

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NO.4 顧客は p460 ソリ ューションを購入し、 必要に応じて時間にわたって複数のコゕを入手
したいと考えています。 最初に顧客は 16 コ ゕを必要とし、 時間にわたって 32 のコゕに 増加
する必要を要求します。 以下のどれがこのニーズを満たすために購入されなければなりませ
んか。
A. 32 コゕのサーバ、 ま た 16 のコゕを無効にする。 必要に応じてコゕを再ゕクテゖブ化する。
B. 16 コゕ P460、より 多くが必 要とされるときに追加の 16 コゕを追加するには、MES を実
行する。
C. 活発な 16 のコゕを持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 時間にわたって求められるより多くのコゕを
活性化するために CUoD を使用する。
D. 活発な 16 のコゕを 持った 32- コゕ? サーバ 。 追加のコゕの必要に応じて、 複数のコゕを有
効にするには CoD を使用する。
Answer: A

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NO.5 見通しは冗長ス ゗ッチと NIC チーミングを必要とします。
見通しは、 デフォルトの IBM PureFlex ラボサービスの実装が何を含んでいるかについて懸念
しています。
NIC チーミングのセットゕップを冗長なス゗ッチで含む最小限の提供は以下のどれですか。
A. Flex システム
B. PureFlex エクスプレ ス
C. PureFlex 標準
D. PureFlex エンタープラ゗ズ
Answer: D

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NO.6 PureFlex 見通しは、x86 計算ノード上の vMotion の同等である 電源計算ノード機能が何
かを尋ねます。次のどれが同等ですか。
A. Live Partition Mobility
B. Virtual IO Server (VIOS)
C. Live Application Mobility
D. N_Port ID Virtualization (NPIV)
Answer: A

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NO.7 技術専門家は、 新しい PureFlex フゔンデーション実装ののリスクを識別し、削減する
必要があります。下記のどれが技術専門家のための IBM の要件ですか。
A. TDA を実行するため に SME に会う
B. 財務計画を調査す るために CFO に会う
C. 実施計画を調査す るために IBM ストレージ? スペシャリストに会う
D. PureFlex 実施計画を調査?? するために IBM クラ゗ゕント? エグゼクテゖブに会う
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-404
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.4 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.5 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for
iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.7 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.8 How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol "&"
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.9 IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS, Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a
specific function that is only useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamic resources
D. to start the embedded client application
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere
Portal?
A. A web application using RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience
Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone
Answer: B,E

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