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Exam Code: HH0-120

Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Modular Exam)

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NO.1 Which AMS2300 feature can be used to isolate the I/O of a MS Exchange application from a backup
application?
A.Host Storage Manager
B.Cache Partition Manager
C.Virtual Partition Manager
D.Cache Residency Manager
ANSWER: B

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NO.2 Which three software features are supported on the Hitachi AMS 2000 family? (Choose three.)
A.Password Protection
B.Universal Replicator
C.TrueCopy Synchronous
D.Copy-on-Write Snapshot
E.TrueCopy Asynchronous
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.3 A data warehouse application needs access to current data at multiple times during the day for billing
and data mining.
What is used to create the online copy of the OLTP server within the same storage system?
A.TrueCopy
B.ShadowImage
C.Copy-on-Write Snapshot
D.TrueCopy Extended Distance
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 An AMS or WMS storage system requires the PC running Storage Navigator Modular 2 to be attached
to the system.
Which communication interface is used by Storage Navigator Modular 2 to talk with the system?
A.USB
B.LAN
C.iSCSI
D.Fibre Channel
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 HDS Adaptable Modular Storage models AMS2100 and AMS2300 provide efficient cost-effective
storage.
Which three attributes characterize the AMS product line? (Choose three.)
A.high availability
B.cache partitioning
C.ease of management
D.large-scale virtualization
E.dynamic provisioning
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.6 A customer has a WMS100 array to run an application with low performance and availability
requirements.
Which WMS100 configuration would meet the requirements?
A.SATA or FC disks
B.one or two controllers
C.one or two host FC ports per controller
D.one or two back-end loops per controller
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 Which two steps are required before using Hitachi Replication Manager? (Choose two.)
A.Replication Manager Agent must be installed.
B.RAID Manager or CCI must be installed.
C.Business Continuity Manager must be installed.
D.Hitachi Device Manager must be installed prior to the installation of Replication Manager software.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.8 What are two advantages of Services Optimized Storage Solutions? (Choose two.)
A.It delivers storage infrastructure components that can be integrated to match application requirements.
B.It offers the ability to combine Fibre Channel SAN storage with IP-based storage.
C.It provides database administrators with the ability to provision and manage storage.
D.It offers application-centric, quality-of-service (QoS) data delivery, based on: performance, availability,
cost, and protection requirements.
ANSWER: AD

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NO.9 Which feature in Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) allows an administrator to remove an LU and
a path without restarting the server?
A.path failover
B.dynamic reconfiguration
C.dynamic deletion
D.Disk Manager
ANSWER: C

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NO.10 A customer is lowering their recovery time objective (RTO) and increasing the integrity of their
backups by using backup to disk. The production data is on a USP V.
Which HDS array provides the most cost effective solution for backup to disk?
A.USP100
B.AMS2300
C.AMS2100
D.WMS100
ANSWER: D

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NO.11 A customer requires a new modular storage array which will use parity for data protection. When a
drive fails in a RAID 5 Group, the remaining disks are each a single point-of-failure. A requirement is that
the vendor must minimize the amount of time the array is in a single point-of-failure state following a disk
failure.
Which two features of the AMS2300 support the requirement? (Choose two.)
A.RAID 6
B.RAID 5+1
C.Dynamic Sparing
D.Fast Disk Rebuild
ANSWER: AC

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NO.12 Customers are increasingly finding new ways for information technology departments to provide value
to business.
How does Services Oriented Storage Solutions (SOSS) help our customers accomplish this?
A.by matching the business value of data to the appropriate storage tier
B.by increasing customer profitability by managing operational expenses
C.by establishing Industry Standard Best Practices into everyday operations
D.by providing a business-centric approach for aligning IT storage resources with business requirements
ANSWER: D

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NO.13 A customer is using Storage Navigator Modular to setup RAID Groups on a new AMS2100.
Which three RAID levels are supported? (Choose three.)
A.RAID-3
B.RAID-6
C.RAID-5
D.RAID-4
E.RAID-1+0
ANSWER: BCE

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NO.14 A customer has multiple applications and one high performance application accessing an AMS2300.
The high performance application consumes all system resources and is causing the other applications to
slow down.
Which feature can be used to prevent the high performance application from monopolizing the AMS2300?
A.Cache Partition Manager
B.Server Priority Manager
C.Cache Residency Manager
D.Universal Volume Manager
ANSWER: A

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NO.15 You want to maximize database performance by dividing cache into partitions.
What is the maximum number of partitions on an AMS2300 system?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
ANSWER: D

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NO.16 A customer is evaluating AMS storage arrays to provide storage for a high performance database that
must be available 24x7.
Which HDS supported configuration meets their needs?
A.AMS2100 with SATA drives
B.AMS2300 with SAS drives
C.AMS1000 with SATA drives
D.AMS500 with FC drives
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 What is the function of HDD Roaming in the Adaptable Modular Storage family?
A.It allows you to perform background HDD-scrubbing.
B.It allows you to monitor the system for HDD failures.
C.It allows you to increase RAID Group capacity dynamically.
D.It allows you to specify RAID Group with HDDs regardless of RKA.
ANSWER: D

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NO.18 How does the Hitachi AMS2000 family protect write data in cache to ensure data integrity?
A.Write I/O is mirrored to cache in both controllers.
B.Write I/O is mirrored to independent cache partitions.
C.Write I/O is striped across two independent cache boards.
D.Write I/O parity information is written to independent cache boards.
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 You have been asked to choose one AMS2000 family storage system to provide remote access
through iSCSI and local SAN support over Fibre Channel at the same time.
Which model will satisfy the customer's requirements?
A.AMS2100
B.AMS2300
C.AMS2500
D.AMS2800
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 A storage administrator wants to use TrueCopy to replicate volumes between an AMS2100 and an
AMS2300.
How many S-VOL copies can be made from a single P-VOL?
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.8
ANSWER: A

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Exam Code: HH0-250

Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Implementer File Services-NAS)

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NO.1 You are implementing a Hitachi NAS Platform into a customer environment. The customer will
implement anti-virus scanning on their system. Which protocol is supported by the Hitachi NAS Platform
for communication with the anti-virus servers?
A. Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
B. Network File System (NFS)
C. NAS Security Protocol (NSP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Answer: A

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NO.2 During a data migration, which three steps should be performed to validate the consistency of the
source and destination shares/exports? (Choose three.)
A. Compare the available capacity on source and destination.
B. Compare the share/export permissions on source and destination.
C. Compare the MD5/SHA256 checksum of the directory tree.
D. Compare the number of files on source and destination.
E. Compare the number of directories on source and destination.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 According to Hitachi Data Systems best practices, how should storage pools, file systems and virtual
servers be configured?
A. The file system auto-expansion feature should be used to expand a file system across different storage
pools.
B. Storage pools should be created with system drives of identical performance and size.
C. File systems should be shared across multiple virtual servers for redundancy.
D. File systems from the same storage pool should be assigned to virtual servers on different Hitachi NAS
Platform nodes.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are two valid steps when upgrading the SMU software in a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. Mount the CD using the command "mount /dev/*.iso".
B. Mount the CD using the command "mount /media/cdrecorder".
C. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 9600 b/s, 8, 1, no parity,
no flow control settings.
D. Connect a serial cable to the SMU and start a terminal session using settings 115200 b/s, 8, 1, no
parity, no flow control settings.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 What are two benefits of the Clustered Name Space (CNS) feature of the Hitachi NAS Platform file
system? (Choose two.)
A. With CNS, network access to configured storage resources can be made through a single CIFS share
or NFS export.
B. CNS provides the mechanism for automatic load balancing.
C. CNS virtualizes network resources, allowing multiple nodes in a cluster to appear as a single node.
D. CNS virtualizes storage resources, allowing multiple file systems to appear as a single large file
system.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which Fibre Channel (FC) speed settings are supported on the Hitachi NAS Platform host ports?
A. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 1 Gb is the default.
B. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 2 Gb is the default.
C. The FC host ports support 1 Gb, 2 Gb, or 4 Gb, where 4 Gb is the default.
D. The FC host ports support 2 Gb, 4 Gb, or 8 Gb, where 8 Gb is the default.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A large movie production studio approaches an HDS sales team with a request to build a large
rendering farm. Their environment consists of UNIX and Linux operating systems. They want the servers
to access a Hitachi NAS Platform. Which file service would have to be enabled to allow access?
A. SSH
B. WebDAV
C. HTTP
D. NFS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three components of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3080 or 3090 Generation 1 (G1) node are hot
swappable? (Choose three.)
A. PSU
B. fans
C. battery pack
D. the hardware FPGA board
E. internal hard drive (HDD)
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which statement describes the Hitachi NAS Platform file system architecture?
A. The file system size may be reduced non-disruptively.
B. The file system is not subject to fragmentation.
C. The file system unifies directory structure and presents a single logical view.
D. The file system spans across multiple storage pools.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Your customer has files that they would like to reverse migrate using Data Migrator. Which two valid
arguments can be used to specify the files? (Choose two.)
A. inode
B. pattern
C. acl
D. age
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 You are upgrading from a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3080 to model 3100. Which two configuration
parameters might be affected? (Choose two.)
A. mount and share parameters
B. Fibre Channel fabric zoning
C. replication policies
D. LUN security in the secure storage domains
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 A customer wants to use Hitachi NAS Platform snapshots and asks you about file system space usage.
Which two statements describe the file system space utilization when using snapshots? (Choose two.)
A. The snapshot technique uses Copy-on-Write (CoW).
B. The snapshot delta data is in the same file system area as the live data.
C. The delta data is first copied to a differential volume before data is modified in the live file system.
D. When live data is not modified, the snapshot does not consume any space.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which two advanced networking features can be used to optimize network throughput within the Hitachi
NAS Platform.? (Choose two.)
A. jumbo frames
B. Cisco Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP)
C. 802.3ad Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP)
D. 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol
Answer: A,C

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NO.14 When performing a microcode upgrade, what information is stored in the cluster/server configuration
backup? (Choose three.)
A. network configuration
B. cluster node names
C. CIFS share names
D. Quorum Device (QD) configuration
E. NFS export names
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.15 Your customer wants to obtain the Management Information Base (MIB) to integrate a Hitachi NAS
Platform into their Event Management framework. What are two ways to obtain the MIB? (Choose two.)
A. Download the Enterprise MIB module from EVS.
B. Download the Enterprise MIB module from the Web Manager GUI.
C. Download the Enterprise MIB module from HiTrack.
D. Contact the Hitachi Data Systems Support Center for the latest Enterprise MIB.
Answer: B,D

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Exam Code: HD0-300

Exam Name: HDI (Help Desk Manager)

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NO.1 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.6 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.12 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses
their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still
decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.15 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.16 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.18 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.19 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: GB0-283

Exam Name: H3C (Constructing Enterprise-level Routing Networks)

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NO.1 A.
B. Route-policy
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.2 BGP
A. Origin
B. AS-Path
C. Next-hop
D. MED
E. Local-preference
F. Community
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 OSPF
A. stub networks
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. point-to-multipoint
Answer: ABCD

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NO.4 CAR IP IP CAR LR
T. True
F. False
Answer: T

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NO.5 NBMA point-to-multipoint
A. NBMA point-to-multipoint
B. NBMA point-to-multipoint
C. NBMA point-to-multipoint PPP
D. NBMA full-meshed point-to-multipoint
Answer: D

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NO.6 QoS
A. QoS
B.
C. QoS
D. CBQ WRED
Answer: BD

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NO.7 OSPF
A. 88
B. 89
C. 179
D. 520
Answer: B

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NO.8 OSPF OSPF 0
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.9 OSPF RIPv2
A.
B.
C.
D. VLSM
Answer: D

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NO.10 OSPF cost
A. mtu
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.11 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 1 NSSA RouterD ABR RouterD
ospf 1
area 0.0.0.1
network 10.45.0.0 0.0.0.255
nssa default-route-advertise
#
area 0.0.0.0
network 4.4.4.4 0.0.0.0
network 10.34.0.0 0.0.0.255
A. RouterD area1 7 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
B. RouterD area1 5 LSA RouterE RouterF LSA
C. RouterC RouterD 5 LSA
D.
Answer: A

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NO.13 IPv4 IPv6
A. 128
B. 164
C. 64
D. 256
Answer: A

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NO.14 BGP Speaker IBGP IGP AS-Path
T. True
F. False
Answer: F

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NO.15 OSPF stub
A. stub stub
B.
C. stub ASBR
D. stub type3 LSA
Answer: B

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NO.16 OSPF
A. 224.0.0.5
B. 224.0.0.6
C. 224.0.0.9
D. 224.0.0.10
Answer: AB

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NO.17 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D

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NO.18 OSPF
A. ABR
B. ABR
C. ABR ASBR
D. ASBR
Answer: ABCD

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NO.19 OSPF ASBR 192.168.0.0/24~192.168.3.0/24 4 ABR
192.168.0.0/22 ABR
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: B

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NO.20 OSPF
A. spf
B.
C.
D.
Answer: AD

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NO.21 Quidway OSPF
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.22 BGP
A. CIDR
B. BGP detail-suppressed
C. BGP network BGP
D. BGP import BGP
Answer: AB

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NO.23 OSPF Router ID
A.
B.
C. IP
D.
Answer: D

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NO.24 A. WFQ CQ Tail Drop
B. WFQ ACL
C. CBWFQ WFQ WFQ
D. LLQ
Answer: D

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NO.25 OSPF
A. DV
B. SPF
C. HASH
D. 3DES
Answer: B

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NO.26 IPSec Security Association
A. IPSec SA
B. SA IPSec
C.
D.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.27 OSPF IS-IS
A. TCP/IP
B.
C. AREA 0
D.
Answer: BD

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NO.28 BGP EBGP
A. BGP
B. BGP
C. BGP
D.
Answer: C

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NO.29 BGP aggregate 10.110.0.0 255.255.0.0 suppress-policy test
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: GE0-703

Exam Name: Genesys (GCP7 - Consultant, Voice Enterprise Edition)

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NO.1 Which of the following are Windows prerequisites for VCS?
A. there are no Windows prerequisites
B. Active Directory
C. IIS and SNMP
D. SQL Server
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a Behind the Switch configuration, the VCS carries out instructions from __________.
A. IVR Server only, in the form of IVR ServerXML
B. T-Server only, in the form of TLib Events
C. Web Server, in the form of VoiceXML
D. IVR Server client, in the form of XML
Answer: C

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NO.3 When would you use the Import Server Instance CSV feature in EMPS?
A. Never. This feature is not available through the EMPS
B. Any time you want to make a change to any of the parameters in EMPS
C. You want to start the Watchdog service
D. When numerous changes are needed with servers or configuration of various components for a
server and in conjunction with Genesys Technical Support
Answer: D

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NO.4 When you make a change to a parameter, such as PopGateway, Route1, Route Type - from InBound
to OutBound, what needs to happen for this change to go into effect?
A. restart WatchDog
B. no need to restart anything. New parameter value goes into effect immediately
C. restart the EMPS
D. restart MRCP Server
Answer: A

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NO.5 The <Application_Name>.xml files provides all of the __________.
A. VCS configuration information
B. voice application information
C. IPCS configuration information
D. web server configuration information
Answer: B

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NO.6 A Primary Voice Application URL is required when provisioning the IVR Profile. The Primary Voice
Application CANNOT include __________.
A. the fully qualified name of the web server that hosts the application
B. the numeric IP address of the web server that hosts the application
C. the name of the first page of the voice application
D. the path to the <Application Name>.XML file
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which VCS/IPCS component controls the TDM telephony or IP Telephony interfaces?
A. PopGateway
B. Page Collector
C. MRCP Client
D. Net Management
Answer: A

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NO.8 To bring up the 9810 listener window in EMPS you need to expand Server, CORE, click on
<ServerName> and then follow which links?
A. Right-click on the Server and view
B. Click link for Network Management GUI to open the 9810 listener
C. Click the link for Server Explorer to open the 9810 listener
D. There are no available links for the 9810 listener window in the EMPS.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The GVP VoiceXML application logic resides on __________.
A. a web server
B. the VCS
C. the VPM
D. the IPCM
Answer: A

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NO.10 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.11 For most deployments with VCS configured in Behind-the-Switch mode using Genesys Framework,
DNIS is obtained through what mechanism?
A. VCS request to the T-Server via IVR Server
B. VCS requests to the Dialogic telephony board
C. a route point corresponding to the appropriate strategy
D. VCS request directly to the ACD/PBX
Answer: A

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NO.12 The process on the VCS/IPCS that starts the other component processes is the __________.
A. Page Collector
B. IVR Server Client
C. Call Flow Assistant
D. WatchDog
Answer: D

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NO.13 Where is the default location of the DNIS Application Mapping Files?
A. <install dir>\CN\data
B. <install dir>\CN\web\dispenser\spd_data
C. <install dir>\CN\config
D. http://EMPS:9810/spm
Answer: B

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NO.14 When the parameter localconfig is set equal to 1 (localconfig = 1) in GVP.ini, the WatchDog service
will __________.
A. not read the local GVP.ini file, using the latest configuration contained in the LDAP database for the
VCS/IPCS parameter settings
B. read the local GVP.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
C. read the local watchdog.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
D. read the local EMPS.ini file for the VCS/IPCS parameters, not using use the latest configuration
contained in the LDAP database.
Answer: B

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NO.15 The ability to record the caller's speech for application analysis is configured in an IVR Profile within
the EMPS and is referred to as __________.
A. OA&M
B. EMS Runtime
C. Enable ASR Transcoding
D. Enable ASR Logging
Answer: D

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NO.16 The Internet Protocol Communication Server (IPCS) processes __________ calls.
A. SIP
B. HTML
C. TDM
D. EMPS
Answer: A

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NO.17 The DNIS.xml provides __________.
A. the Primary Application URL
B. all application configuration information but no process information
C. the address of the IVR Server
D. the URL path to the <Application_Name>.XML
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following features can be changed using the Element Management System (EMS) GUI
when monitoring a VCS?
A. the log level for each process
B. the default directory for logging
C. the Behind or In-Front configuration for that particular VCS
D. the speech recognition vendor for that particular VCS
Answer: A

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NO.19 The Voice Communication Server (VCS) processes __________ calls.
A. VoIP
B. IPCS
C. Web-based GUI
D. TDM
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which GVP application is used to build and test voice applications?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: D

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NO.21 After WatchDog is started, GVP.ini file contains __________.
A. no configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes
B. application specific configuration information such as DNIS
C. the configuration information for VCS/IPCS processes, such as default log levels
D. only Dialogic configuration information
Answer: C

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NO.22 In the <Application_Name>.xml file, the IVRTimeout value determines __________.
A. how long URS waits for the response from web server before timing out and trying default routing
target.
B. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Backup IVR URL.
C. how long GQA waits for the connection with the IVR Server before using the Backup IVR URL.
D. how long VCS/IPCS waits for the response from web server before timing out and attempting to reach
the Primary IVR URL.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Refer to the CTI Property tab in the Provisioning IVR profile section in the EMPS. The Default Route
Number is used when __________.
A. IVR Server is unable to contact the Solution Control Interface (SCI)
B. IVR Server is unable to contact the Universal Routing Server (URS), or when the URS is unable to
find an agent number to which it can route the call
C. IVR component, specifically Genesys Queue Adapter (GQA), cannot communicate with SCS.
D. IVR Server component cannot communicate with the Web Server
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which GVP software component is used to configure the various components of GVP including
application provisioning?
A. Element Management Provisioning System
B. IP Call Manager
C. Voice Application Reporter
D. Genesys Studio
Answer: A

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NO.25 How are VoiceXML pages produced during a GVP call session?
A. Web application server generates VoiceXML when processing asp or jsp pages
B. VCS or IPCS produce VoiceXML when the call is initiated
C. EMPS produces VoiceXML when the request comes in
D. IPCS creates the VoiceXML when it relays SIP messages
Answer: A

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NO.26 A logical group of ports is referred to as a __________.
A. Telephony Manager
B. Route
C. Page Collector
D. MRCP Client
Answer: B

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NO.27 The <DNIS>.XML and <Application_Name>.xml files are generated when __________.
A. a call arrives at the VCS
B. an application is created and configured in EMPS
C. the WatchDog on the EMPS is restarted
D. requested by the IVR Server
Answer: B

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NO.28 In an In-Front of the Switch configuration using Genesys Framework, __________.
A. the VCS receives all call routing information from the strategy
B. the DNIS must be delivered to the VCS with the call
C. a connection with the IVR Server is required
D. ANI is required to initiate or begin the call.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which version of the VoiceXML Specification does GVP version 7.5 support?
A. VoiceXML 1.0
B. VoiceXML 1.1
C. VoiceXML 2.0
D. VoiceXML 3.0
Answer: C

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NO.30 Under what circumstances is a username and password required to access the EMPS?
A. Never. By default, a username and password is not required since EMPS is only used for monitoring
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B. Always. When opening EMPS Login screen, the system will require users enter their username and
password.
C. Only when the EMPS is being accessed from a remote workstation. You are automatically
authenticated and can log in from a local machine.
D. Only when using SunOne Directory Server because OpenLDAP has no built-in security for the EMPS
login screen.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: EW0-300

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NO.1 According
to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible to telnet
from host A to any of the switch IP addresses.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 How does an IGMP router learns about the existence of hosts in multicast groups:
A. By receiving a response on an IGMP membership query
B. By looking into the ARP cache
C. There is no dynamic learning process, instead static FDB entries are used
D. None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 In PIM sparse mode the Bootstrap Router election is based on the highest IP
address.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.4 Extreme ware 7.0 supports both level1 and level 2 IS-IS routers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.5 On an Extreme Networks switch, how many bits comprise an OSPF area ID?
A. 32 BITS
B. 48 BITS
C. 64 BITS
D. 128 BITS
Answer: A

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NO.6 Extreme Networks IS? Chipset switches allows you to run simultaneously the
Radius and Tacacs+features.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 In SLB, Port Translation Mode is similar to Translation Mode,except that in Port
Translation Mode the physical Port where the node connects to must be configured
as a Fast Ethernet Half Duplex port.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 How many bits in the IP TOS field does a Summit 48i examine?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.9 ESRP-enabled switches can utilize either an IP address or an IPX net ID for their
protected VLANs.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the CLI command you would use to configure a VLAN to be protected by
ESRP?
A. enable esrp vlan <vlan>
B. enable esrp vlan <vlan> detail
C. config esrp vlan <vlan>
D. config esrp vlan <vlan> detail
Answer: A

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NO.11 The majority of Extreme Networks switches have a dedicated out of band
management port and VLAN. The 10/100BASE-TX Ethernet management port
allows you to communicate directly to the CPU of the switch. If you want the switch
to forward traffic from the mgmt VLAN to other VLANS you just have to enable
ipforwarding on all VLANS including the management VLAN.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.12 EAPS protection switching is similar to what can be achieved with the Spanning
Tree Protocol but one of the big advantages of EAPS is:
A. EAPS also supports star topologies
B. EAPS has a recovery time of less than a second in case of link failure.
C. An EAPS domain supports multiple root bridges, thus alternative path
D. EAPS eliminates the need for protocols like ESRP or VRRP that bring default
gateway redundancy.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Exhibit:
According to accompanying diagram and ACL configuration it is possible for Host
A (10.10.10.100) and Host C (30.30.30.100) to successfully communicate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A

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NO.14 The following modes of operation are supported with the Network login feature.
(choose all that apply)
A. Secure mode
B. Campus mode
C. Quick Mode
D. ISP mode
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 In Extreme Ware, which one of the following is an optional ESRP configuration
that allows you to connect active hosts directly to an ESRP master or standby
switch.
A. ESRP Groups
B. ESRP Domain
C. ESRP Host Attach
D. None of these
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the RP-set?
A. It is the information of which RP are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by the BSR towards all PIM routers
B. It is the information of which multicast groups are active
It is send by the RP towards all PIM routers
C. It is the information of which BSR are available for what Multicast groups.
It is send by RP towards all PIM routers
D. It is the information, stored by all RP, needed to find the BSR,
Answer: A

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NO.17 An LSP is a link state packet used by which routing protocol?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. BGP
D. None of these
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which CLI command configures DVMRP on all IP multicast interfaces.
A. config dvmrp add vlan all
B. config dvmrp add all
C. enable dvmrp
D. enable dvmrp vlan all
Answer: A

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NO.19 OSPF requires that all areas attach directly to the backbone area, and that all
attachments are made with a direct physical connection.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.20 It is possible to set an STP-threshold to switch from a shared tree to a shortest path
tree. This switch over will be initiated by:
A. The Rendezvous Point
B. The Bootstrap Router
C. A last hop router
D. The router nearest to the source
Answer: C

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NO.21 The integrated IS-IS protocol allows for mixing of IP-only,OSI-only, and dual (IP
and OSI) routers.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.22 In OSPF, the router type that is required to connect an area with another area is
the:
A. Designated Router
B. Back-up Designated Router
C. ASBR
D. ABR
Answer: D

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NO.23 When limit-learning is configured on a port and the limit is reached the following
traffic still flows to the port.
A. Packets destined for the active Mac addresses
B. Broadcast traffic
C. EDP traffic
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.24 The maximum number of EAPS domains supported per switch and ring is?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: A

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NO.25 An IP-only IS-IS router (or "IP-only" router) is defined to be
A. A router which uses IS-IS as the routing protocol for IP
B. Does not otherwise support OSI protocols
C. One of the IS-IS router types
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.26 An Ethernet Automatic Protection Switching (EAPS) domain relies on a control
VLAN.
The ports in that control VLAN ports must be tagged, and participating in the ring
only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.27 Extreme Ware 7.0 can support which OSPF authentication on a per VLAN basis:
A. MD5
B. Simple-password
C. Encrypted simple-password
D. All of these
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following statements fit the description of PIM sparse mode? (choose
three that apply)
A. PIM sparse mode is suitable for network with minimal multicast deployment.
B. PIM sparse mode builds shared trees based on a common Rendez-Vous Point
C. In PIM sparse mode the RPF check depends on the tree type
D. An explicit join is not required in PIM sparse mode.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.29 On a RADIUS server you can distinguish between switch access and Netlogin
authentication. Extreme provides a vendor specific attribute
Extreme:Extreme-Netlogin-only =disabled/enabled.
User authentication for both Netlogin and switch access is allowed when the value is
disabled.
When the value enabled user authentication is restricted to Netlogin only.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.30 The following CLI command is valid to advertise SLB virtual servers in OSPF ith a
cost of 10.
Enable ospf export vip cost 10
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.1 What does MOF organize?
A. Activities and processes into SMF, which are grouped together in phases that mirror the IT service
lifecycle.
B. Activities and processes into phases, which are grouped into SMFs that mirror the IT service lifecycle.
C. Activities and processes into SMFs, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
D. Activities and processes into phases, which are directed by Management Reviews that mirror the IT
service lifecycle.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about the SMFs in the Operate Phase?
A. All SMFs feed the Deliver Phase.
B. The Customer Service SMF focuses on how to resolve complex problems.
C. The SMFs are dependant on each other.
D. The SMFs are sequential.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement of the IT service lifecycle is not correct?
A. It isolates risk to the Operate phase.
B. It addresses the design and delivery of the IT service.
C. It describes the life of an IT service.
D. It represents planning and optimizing the IT service to align with the business strategy.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What Management Review (MR) determines whether IT is working on the right things and clarifies the
business value of proposed projects?
A. Policy and Control
B. Portfolio
C. Release Readiness
D. Service Alignment
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the IT service lifecycle composed of?
A. Build phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase, Manage layer
B. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deploy phase, Operate phase
C. Manage Layer, Plan phase, Deliver phase, Operate phase
D. Plan phase, Develop phase, Operate phase, Manage phase
Answer: C

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NO.6 What does the focus of the Change and Configuration SMF in the Plan phase include?
A. Architectural change
B. Corporate strategy transfer to IT strategy
C. Legal and compliance representation
D. Process and procedure
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which SMF provides root cause analysis?
A. Incident Management
B. Problem Management
C. Stabilizing
D. Testing
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Assess, monitor and control risk
B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.9 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
A. Define service requirements
B. Monitoring and improving plans
C. Planning
D. all of the above
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which is a goal of MOF?
A. ensure that business oversight governs IT service lifecycle activity to promote business/IT alignment
B. ensure that the investment in IT delivers expected business value at an acceptable level of risk
C. provide guidance to Finance and Accounting groups to successfully audit services delivered by IT
D. provide a common reference standard for any enterprise offering IT services to internal and external
customers
Answer: B

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NO.11 Is the Portfolio Management Review focused on understanding the state of supply and demand for IT
services and directing investments to make sure that the business value of IT is realized?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.12 What do the goals of the Reliability SMF include?
A. Service maintainability is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
B. Service Continuity is aligned to the business in a cost-effective manner.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What do the steps to setting policy not include?
A. reviewing legal compliance
B. review and maintain policies
C. publish policies
D. validate policies
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is a goal of the Plan phase?
A. Delivered Services are adaptable to the changing needs of the business
B. Packaged product deployments are deployed in line with business requirements
C. To ensure that deployed services operated in line with the agreed-to SLA targets
D. To establish an integrated approach to IT Service Management activities
Answer: A

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NO.15 Performing IT accounting is part of which SMF?
A. Business/IT Alignment SMF
B. Financial Management SMF
C. Policy Management SMF
D. Reliability Management SMF
Answer: B

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