2013年6月30日星期日

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Exam Code: 3101

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Communication Manager and CM Messaging - Embedded Maintenance and Troubleshooting Exam)

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NO.1 Which two SAT based tools are helpful in diagnosing call setup sequences and processor two.?
A. List trace station/tac/ras command
B. Status media processor hoard
C. mst (Message Sequence Tracecommand
D. status processor -ip-inter face
E. List measurements clan/dsl/a
Answer: A

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NO.2 Communication Manager Messaging users are reporting that their message lights do not come on
when broadcast messages are delivered to their mailboxes.
How can this be resolved?
A. Set up the broadcast mailbox to automatically turn on message notification.
B. Change the subscriber broadcast permissions to "Both".
C. Change the system administration screen so that the broadcast message is delivered during the
"System Prime Time".
D. Have the user turn on message notification when the y creates the broadcast message.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which command can you use to troubleshoot port network routing/tracing problems to devices greater
than six hops away?
A. tracert
B. trace-rout
C. List trace
D. /user/sbin/tracepath6
Answer: B

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NO.4 Avaya Communication Manager 6.0 offers the Feature and Evolution server options. Which two IP
station protocols do the Feature and Evolution server options support? (Choose two)
A. SIP
B. T.38
C. RTP
D. H.323
E. UDP
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which two types of violations does the Communication Manager Security Violation Notification (SVN)
feature monitor and report? (Choose two.)
A. Media gateway login violations
B. System Management Interface (SMI) login violations
C. Trunk access code (TAC. violations
D. Station security code violations
E. Remote access barrier code violations
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which two SAT commands are useful in monitoring overall system performance

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Exam Code: 3300

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura® Contact Center Administration Exam)

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NO.1 Which statement regarding scripts is true?
A. A secondary script is the only place treatments can be applied to the call.
B. A primary script is referenced directly from the Master script, otherwise It Is a secondary script.
C. A primary script is the only place that call variables can be assigned.
D. Secondary and primary scripts are exactly the same.
Answer: B

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NO.2 If the call is not queued and the skillset is in service. It must be re-queued.
What is the proper script syntax to accomplish this requirement.?
A. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_stlll_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
B. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED THEN
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
QUEUE TO SKILLSET automotive
WAIT 2
ELSE
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF E
ND IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_bu5y_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
C. Section wait_loop
IF QUEUED AND
IF OUT OF SERVICE automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT
END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_busy_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECTUTE wait_loop
D. Section wait_loop
IF NOT QUEUED AND
IF NOT OUT OF SERVICE SKILLSET automotive THEN
GIVE RAN out_of_service_ran_gv
DISCONNECT END IF
END IF
GIVE RAN agts_still_ran_gv
WAIT 30
EXECUE walt_loop
Answer: B

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3.A customer is using the intrinsic Call Rate in & script. For what Information is the system looking when
the Call Rate Intrinsic is used?
A. the number of contacts that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
B. the total number of active calls in the system
C. the number of calls that entered the system in the last 10 minutes
D. the number of calls answered in the preceding 10 minutes
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has written a script application. The Problem View Is
showing a syntax error with the following area of script: IF DAY OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY
THEN
What is the correct syntax required for this application?
A. IF DAYS OF WEEK EQUALS MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
B. IF DAY OF WEEK EQUAI S MON..FRI THEN
C. IF DAY OF WEEK - MONDAY FRIDAY THEN
D. IF DAY OF WEEK = MONDAY..FRIDAY THEN
Answer: D

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NO.4 A supervisor with Avaya Aura Contact Center would like to create a custom Application Display The
data fields available are cumulative, fixed, and instantaneous. What is an example of a cumulative data
field?
A. Application Name
B. Average Answered Delay
C. Calls Waiting
D. Service Level Threshold
Answer: B

Avaya   3300   3300   3300   3300

NO.5 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center will use the Contact Router for all calls entering the system.
What is one function of the Contact Router?
A. It links agents to applications.
B. It links skillsets to applications.
C. It links Intrlnslcs to applications.
D. It links Control Directory Numbers (CDN) to applications.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center has created a loop in a script application with the following
parameters:
1. While the caller is in the loop, the customer wants an announcement to play every thirty seconds, and
the queued status of the call and the In-service status of the skillset must be evaluated
2. If the call is not queued, and if the skillset is out of service, the call will be sent to an out of service
announcement

NO.7 How many seconds are recommended that a script should wait after queuing a contact to a skillset?
A. WAIT 1
B. WAIT 2
C. WAIT 4
D. WAIT 8
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two commands can update the value of a call variable? (Choose two.)
A. GIVE
B. READVAR
C. ASSIGN TO
D. COLLECT DIGITS
E. SEND REQUEST
Answer: CD

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NO.9 A customer with Avaya Contract Center in SIP environment would like to add voice processing
commands to an application.
Which block would be required?
A. IVR
B. Treatment
C. Output
D. Input
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer with Avaya Aura Contact Center wants to see in a report the percentage of calls being
answered in the automotive skillset in 20 seconds or less.
What would need to be programmed to obtain this data?
A. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 %Servlce_Level_S Threshold to 20, the Level
2 %Servlce_Level_S threshold to 30, and assign the threshold class to the automotive ski 11 set.
B. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 %Service_Level_S Threshold lo 10, the Level 2%
Service_Level_S Threshold to 20 and assign the threshold class to the automotive skillset.
C. Create an application threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
D. Create a skillset threshold class, set the Level 1 Service Level Threshold to 20, and assign the
threshold class to the automotive skillset.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 3303

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Proactive Contact Implementation and Maintenance Exam)

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NO.1 Which hardware component is required for a hard dialer Proactive Contact 5.X.?
A. Avaya Application Enablement Services (AES) 3.1 or later
B. Avaya Enhanced Network Bus Controller (ENBC)
C. Avaya Communication Manager (CM) 3.1 or later
D. TN-744-based Call Classifier Cards version "e" or later
Answer: B

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NO.2 What should the crontab of a secondary dialer have?
A. pds_maintenance
B. pds_maintenance and db_rnaintenance
C. pds_maintenance and mts_maintenance
D. pds_maintenance, mts_maintenance and db_mainlenance
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does db_mgr script do?
A. It stops and starts the database
B. It copies calling lists to *.old.
C. It rolls up the daily data into monthly statistics.
D. It removes all old and outdated files from the system.
E. It runs a backup of the database to DVD.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system operator reports that agents are randomly being disconnected from Proactive Contact Agent.
You have reviewed the available data and it is inconclusive. Since the problem is intermittent, you need to
set up the dialer so that it will gather the data you need in the future.
Assuming that the current date is February 19, 2011, which command would you enter in the hopes of
recording the next occurrence?
A. tail-facc*0219
B. check_errors 20110219
C. logadm -p opmon |7
D. logcat -p agent
Answer: C

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NO.5 In Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0, which application can be used to enable/disable the Agent Job list
feature?
A. Agent Application
B. Command User Interface (System Telnet)
C. Analyst
D. Editor
Answer: B

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NO.6 A system operator opens a Job Status view in the Avaya Proactive Contact Monitor and notices that
the status for job EXP100 is shown as Active, but the character-based Job Monitor no longer shows the
job as running. The system operator calls support and asks for an explanation.
Which three actions would you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem? (Choose three.)
A. Log on to the dialer and run check_db and check_mts.
B. Instruct the supervisor on how to generate debugging data in the cd.log file and ask the supervisor to
send you the output for analysis.
C. Tell the supervisor how to locate her personal directory and how to delete all the .cmv files foundthere.
D. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from
mo_last_status;
E. Log on to the dialer and run sqlplus, and then enter the following query: SQL> select * from dialerdef;
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.7 A system operator needs to see failed login attempts on the Avaya Proactive Contact 5.X dialer. Which
login type must be used to see these failed attempts?
A. sysadm
B. system
C. auditor
D. reporter
Answer: C

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NO.8 A system is logging errors on a porter process during every reboot/restart of Proactive Contact. Which
two parameters, if mismatched, would cause this? (Choose two.)
A. PORTSinmaster, cfg
B. OPERATORS in master, cfg
C. MAXHIDSLOTS in master, cfg
D. H specified ports configuredindgswitch.cfg
E. N specified ports configured in dgswitch.cfg
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 A Job is running on Avaya Proactive Contact 5.0 and the system operator notices that not enough
records are selected. The operator wants to change selection criteria to select more records and re-run
the call selection without stopping the job.
How can this be achieved?
A. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Monitor.
B. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Editor.
C. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Command User Interface (CUI).
D. Change the parameters and re-run the selection from Analyst.
Answer: A

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NO.10 To configure the opt-out feature for a virtual job, you need to select the check-box against "Should 'opt
outs' be enabled". This enables other configuration parameters for this feature.
Which three configuration parameters are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Opt-out Digit: 5
B. When an opt-out happens, transfer to .. : Transfer to a VDN
C. Message to be played when opt-out fails : 1
D. When opt-out happens, transfer to : Transfer to an outbound job
E. Opt out Digit: #
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.11 A system supervisor calls support to report that when Job Agent view in Monitor is used, agents that are
on break cannot be seen.
What is the reason for this happening?
A. An agent who is on break is not really on a job. The supervisor should see that the agent is still on the
system by looking at a Dialer Agent view Instead.
B. The agents are exiting out of the Proactive Contact Agent (PC Agent) application rather than using the
"Go On Break" option in the PC Agent menu.
C. Display of agents who have used the "Go On Break" function of PC Agent application is not supported
in Monitor.
D. Monitor may not be configured to display agents who are on break.
E. An agent who has used the "Go On Break" function Is shown as "Off Job" in Monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A business has a three dialer pod (one primary and two secondary) and ten supervisor workstations.
How many Java processes should be running while checking mid-tier services (check_mts)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 10
D. 13
E. 14
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three should you verify if a network connection error is suspected between the Avaya Proactive
Contact 5.X server and the PG230RM? (Choose three.)
A. Run lanscan and landiag and look for collisions and other errors on the internal network (lan0).
B. Verify the name (switch1) and IP address for the PG230RM matches between the /etc/hosts onthe
AvayaProactiveContact server and in the Network Configuration page on the PG230RM (under the
Current Internet Address).
C. Verify that SWITCHTYPE is set to DIGITAL in /opt/avaya/pds/etc/master.cfg on the Avaya Proactive
Contact server.
D. Verify you have an active flashing LED light on the front of the ENBC card indicating LAN activity.
E. Verify that there are four swif_dg processes running on the Avaya Proactive Contact server.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.14 On the Avaya Proactive Contact Analyst application, which section shows you Non-Contact and Error
summary reports?
A. Agent
B. Job
C. Administrative
D. Agent Monthly
Answer: B

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NO.15 A system supervisor uses Editor to create a new completion code for use in a Job that will run later in
the day. The job seems to start up without any problem, but when the supervisor looks at Monitor's Job
Completion Code view, no agents are releasing calls using the new code.
Which two Issues would contribute to this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The agents did not get the email describing the new completion code and the conditions for Itsuse.
B. The completion code changes are in the pending state and won't be available to agents until after the
next dialing application restart.
C. The Proactive Contact Agent application has not been updated to use the new completion code.
D. Monitor is not working properly. There should be at least a few calls with the new completion code.
E. The system supervisor forgot to add the new completion code to the agent keys file associated with the
job.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Code: 132-S-720-1

Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist Call Center Implement and Support Elective Exam)

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NO.1 Your client needs to address agent morale issues thin their call center. These issues
are tied to those
agents who staff a higher number of skills resulting in more time spent on ACO calls (also
known as hot
seats ¯).
Which Avaya capability should be used to help eliminate ® ho t sea t ¡¯ in a c a ll ce nter
A. Auto-Reserve Agents
B. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
C. Expert Agent Selection (EAS)
D. Percent Allocation Distribution (PAD)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer is implementing a non-AVAYA CI/LAN application in conjunction with
Communication
Manager (CM) 4 0 What is the minimum software licensing required on Communication
Manager and AE
Services?
A. ASAI Core on CM and TSAPI Basic and Ad ¯i anced on AE Se r M ces
B. ASAI Core on CM and CvtAN on AE Ser ¯.i ces
C. ASAI Core, ASAI Plus and Cli Stations on CM and CVLAN on AE Services
D. CTI Propnetary Adjunct inks on CM and CVL.AN on AE Services
Answer: B

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NO.3 Your customer is migrating their call center from basic ACD to EAS.
After the EAS feature has been licensed on the system, what are three tasks that must be
completed to
facilitate the EAS conversion? (Choose three.)
A. EAS must be optioned on the Feature Related System Parameters form.
B. The CMS (if present) switch administration for the ACO must be changed to support EAS.
C. Queue Status Indicators must be re-administered.
D. Agent work mode buttons on voice terminals must be modified.
E. Administer hunt groups for Redirect on No Answer (RONA).
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.4 Which of the following is not a valid connecbvity test available using the Applications
Enablement
Services Utilities menu available from OAM?
A. TSAPI Test
B. Ping Host
C. ASAI Test
D. Traceroute
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have just installed Avaya P Agent R-6 on the computers for all 150 agents. All of
the computers can
ping the Communication Manager (CM), but only 100 of the agents can log into their lP Agent
station.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ®M ax i m u m C oncu rr en tl y R eg i s t e r ed I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -
parameters customer-options ¯
screen is set to 100.
B. The ® I P S t a ti on¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® s ys -parameters customer-options ¯ sc r een i s se
t t o¡ n
C. The ®M u lti m ed i a M od ¡¯ f ield o n t h ¡ ® chan ge s tat o n ¡ ¯ fo r m i s s et t o ¡ ® E
nh n c
D. The ®Phone Fea t u r e¡¯ w i nd o w o n t h ¡® S tat ion A dm i n istrat io n f o r m nee d s t
o be s e t o ¡® -In ¯.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer is implementing third-party data directed routing
Which three ctor steps would cause an adjunct routing request to be terminated? (Choose
three.)
A. check split
B. wait
C. queue
D. go to step
E. converse on split
Answer: A, C, E

Avaya questions   132-S-720-1   132-S-720-1 study guide

NO.7 You have just received a call from a customer that agent 6024 is no longer receiving
calls for skill 6.
The customer informs you that the agent was receiving calls yesterday for this skill. You
display the agent
login ID and inform the customer that skill 6 is no longer assigned in the agents profile. The
customer
wants to know when the agents profile was changed. Keep in mind that changes to agent
profiles for this
customer can only be made through the Media Server,
Which command would you use to determine when a change was made to this agents
profile?
A. display changes extension 6024
B. list history
C. display agent 6024
D. displayevents 6024
E. trace agents
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer has commissioned agents who take both service related calls as well
as sales
opportunity calls The agents receive a commission on all sales. Which Business Advocate
feature would
assure that agents are provided equal opportunity to take sales related calls?
A. Service Objective
B. Percentage Allocation Distribution
C. Service Level Supervisor
D. Reserve Agent
Answer: B

Avaya original questions   132-S-720-1 braindump   132-S-720-1 exam

NO.9 When turning on the CMS application an installation engineer receives the message
shown:
®C heck i ng t he S ys t e m Tunab l es f o r CM S va l ues m d : m irr o r ed_ r oo t _ fl ag
MUST be se t t o 1 CM S canno t r un
without correct tunable values. Error occurred while processing request..... see
/cmsfinstallllogdir/admin.log for detaiIs ¯
Which file will require amending to resolve this problem?
A. /etcftunables
B. /etc/system
C. /cms/insta llftunables
D. /etc/defaultlmirror
Answer: B

Avaya   132-S-720-1   132-S-720-1 test

NO.10 You have been assigned a project to add an ACD to an existing Avaya Call
Management System (CMS).
The customer has requested that Avaya provide a turn-key implementation Which three
resources will
you schedule? (Choose three)
A. Communication solutions integration - provisioning
B. Communicabon and Solution Integration (C&Sl)
C. software specialist
D. on-site technician
E. Network Integration Center (NIC)
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.11 Your customer wants to periodically adjust agent skill assignments and preferences
automatically
(without human intervention) based on real-time agent sales results in their CRM application.
Which solution would satisfy the requirement?
A. Implement a custom CTI application which will change the agent skills.
B. Pursue a custom application through Avaya CSI
C. Use Avaya Site Administration Scheduling.
D. Use CMS Supervisor scripting.
Answer: B

Avaya exam prep   132-S-720-1   132-S-720-1

NO.12 Which three statements descnbe the correct use of the asaiuui vector vanable when
communicating
with an adjunct computer telephony integration application? (Choose three.)
A. Valid lengths of the asaiuui vector variable range from 1 to 24 digits
B. The asaiuu, vector variable allows the adjunct CTI application to set a variable for use in
vector
processing
C. A common use for the asaiuui variable in a vector step is to test the assigned value
against a threshold
value.
D. The scope of the asaiuui variables is only local
E. Once a value is assigned, it cannot be modified or changed byrne adjunct
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.13 Your customer has basic reporting requirements that include agent level skill reporting
for 12
simultaneous supervisors accessing real-time information using PCs over their Local Area
Network. What
is the most cost effective reporting offer that meets these requirements?
A. BCMR Desktop
B. BCMS
C. CMS
D. Operational Analyst
Answer: C

Avaya test   132-S-720-1 test   132-S-720-1

NO.14 You ask the Avaya Call Management System (CMS) administrator to increase the
measured trunks.
Since the administrator has not changed parameters before, CMS administration
documentation must be
accessed. Which three sections are needed to change parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Free Space Allocation
B. Data Storage Allocation
C. Trunk Group assignment
D. Data Collection
E. Disk Allocation
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.15 You are a team member assigned on a project to install a new Avaya S87XX Media
Server and a new
Avaya Call Management System (CMS). Who is responsible for identifying what equipment
has arrived at
the customers site?
A. the field technician
B. the client executive
C. the program manager
D. the remote field engineer (RFE)
Answer: A

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NO.16 For single site call centers where Call Management System (CMS) data is critical to
their business,
which two benefits does the CMS provide for minimum data loss? (Choose two.)
A. disk mirroring
B. Survivable CMS
C. high availability CMS
D. duplicated processors
Answer: A, C

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NO.17 Your customer would like to be able to collect call center data when the enterprise
fragments using a
remote gateway. Since this is a small location, an LSP was installed to support the users
Which system
would allow the customer to collect and then add data back to the main Call Management
System (CMS)?
A. HACMS
B. Primary CMS
C. BCMR-D
D. Survivable CMS
Answer: D

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NO.18 A customer wants to know the definition of the Average ACD Time on the Historical
Split Skill Summary
Interval Report. Which documentation would you reference in order to obtain this
information?
A. Avaya Call Management System Supervisor Release 14 Reports
B. Avaya CMS Supervisor Release 14 Report Designer
C. Avaya CMS Capacities
D. Avaya Call Management System Release 14 Administration
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer wishes to allocate the subnet 255.255252.0 to the ® cus t o m e r LAN ne t
w o r k i n t e rf ac ¡¯ o n t h
CMS. Which file must be amended to ensure that this net mask is correctly allocated when
the CMS
system is rebooted?
A. /etc!subnet
B. /etc/netmasks
C. /etcfnetworks
D. /etcfhosts
Answer: B

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NO.20 Your customer is reporting that after hours callers are being disconnected. Recently
they changed the
out-of-hours vector from routing to an internal voice mailbox to an off site answering service
using a
route-to digits step
What is happening?
A. Dial ahead digits are being discarded
B. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to no.
C. In the associated vector, coverage on route-to digits step was set to °yee
D. Class of Restriction on associated VON has too low of an FRL to allow outcalling
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 6201-1

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Contact Center on Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager and Avaya Call Management System Implementation Exam)

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NO.1 Toactivate, which three options require an Avaya authorization password? (Choose three)
A. simultaneous CMS Supervisor logins
B. the number of agents thatthe CMS can report on
C. the number of users that can be administered in the CMS
D. the number of ACDs thatthe CMS system can monitor
E. features assigned to each user
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 Which two CommunicationManagerfeatures does the VALcircuit pack support? (Choose two.)
A. Music-an-hold
B. Voice over IP
C. Integrated Announcements
D. Local Announcements
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 A technician integratesthecustomer snetwork and links the CM reference between CM and CMS is
greater than 24 hours.
Whatcan be done to fix the problem?
A. Shutdown the CMS to the ak prompt level and adjust the BIOS time.
B. Run the script /cms/install/autotime to synchronize the Communication Manager's time to the CMS
C. In. CMS, login as root and use the /cms/datesync command to sync the CMS and CM time.
D. FromSolarislogin as root and use the date command
Answer: B

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NO.4 In an active non-Expert agent selection (AES) environment, what is each hunt group known as?
A. Agent
B. Split
C. Skill
D. Vector
Answer: C

Avaya   6201-1 exam simulations   6201-1   6201-1   6201-1

NO.5 A customer needs helpwith maintaining service leveltargets.
Which Advocate feature will make automated adjustments to overload settings?`
A. Dynamic Threshold Adjustment
B. Service Objective
C. Dynamic Percent Allocation
D. Vector Queuing Priorities
Answer: A

Avaya certification training   6201-1 test questions   6201-1

NO.6 A customer has purchased 5200 agent licenses and each agent has been assigned at least 3 skills.
Which two values would be a valid Data Storage Allocation entry for "Maximumagents lagged in"?
(Choose two)
A. 10400
B. 15600
C. 100000
D. 500000
Answer: A,B

Avaya questions   6201-1   6201-1 original questions   6201-1 questions   6201-1 questions

NO.7 The Quick Credit call center opened at 8 a.m. on the Friday, the day after a holiday By8:30, the
customer service line had received 6 customercomplaints all1 stemming from calls to the center the day
before. Callers complained thatthey received the all agents are busy
recording but regardlesshow long
they waited, were never answered.
What caused callers to be queued even though the Quick Credit call center was closed onthe holiday?
A. The Communication Manager was down.
B. An agentforgotto log out.
C. The holiday recording was not functioning properly.
D. The holiday was not administered in the holiday tablet
Answer: B

Avaya   6201-1   6201-1

NO.8 A customer just upgraded their CMS to releaseR16 from release Rt4. Theswitch is releaseCM4 and is
not going to be upgraded to CM 6untilnextweek
When the switch is upgraded,what needs to happen before the link will come up using theCM6 protocol?
A. Only the reporting adjunct in the switch needs to be changed to R16 CMS.
B. Only the switch release in the CMS needs to be changed to CM6.
C. Both the reporting adjunctthe switch and the switch release in the CMS need to be updated
D. It is not necessary fareither the reporting adjunct orthe switch release to change.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Click theexhibit button
A Miami basedmedical center is defining evacuation procedures for severe weather conditions The center
has decided to plan for two types evacuations, major and minor During a minor evacuation; the center
willstaff only a few medical answer line agents to answer critical callsmajor evacuation the answer line will
not be staffed instead of reaching alive agent, callers willreceive a pre-recordedinformation
Inthe example vector segment, what is represented by the Ein steps 2 and 3?
A. E is a standard vector code for evacuation
B. E has been administered as a Feature Access Code
C. Ehas a vector variable that is changed when an evacuation is required
D. E is assigned to a VDN that routes calls to an evacuation vector
Answer: D

Avaya demo   6201-1   6201-1

NO.10 When connecting the service PC to S8800, the cable connects the System Management Ethernet
connector port.
Which port is used when hooking the monitor to the CMS T5220?
A. SER MGT Port
B. NET MGT Port
C. NET 1Port
D. XVR-300XB port
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 6102-1

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Virtual Services Platform 9000 Implementation Exam)

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NO.1 Given the following ACL applied to an interface:
filter acl ace 1 5 name "xxxx" filter acl ace action 1 5 deny
filter acl ace ip 1 5 ip-protocol-type eq tcp
filter acl ace protocol 1 5 dst-port eq 23
filter acl ace 1 5 enable
What is the result of this filter?
A. permit telnet traffic
B. deny ftp traffic
C. permit only tcp traffic
D. deny telnet traffic
E. deny only tcp traffic
Answer: D

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NO.2 Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is used by the IP Multicast router, to
learn about the
existence of host group members on their directly attached subnets.
Which statement about IGMP is true?
A. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for IP hosts broadcasting IGMP
queries and
reporting their host group memberships.
B. The IP Multicast routers get this information by broadcasting IGMP queries and listening
for IP hosts
reporting their host group memberships.
C. The IP Multicast routers get this information by recognizing the modified MAC address of a
Multicast
packet and adding that MAC address to the Multicast tree.
D. The IP Multicast routers get this information by listening for Multicast Servers broadcasting
IGMP
queries and listening for IP hosts reporting their host group memberships.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is mirroring multiple ports to a single monitor port.
What happens if the mirrored traffic exceeds the bandwidth of the monitor port?
A. The traffic will be buffered until there is available bandwidth.
B. The excess traffic will be dropped randomly.
C. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the mirror priority of the ingress port.
D. The excess traffic will be dropped based upon the port priority of the ingress port.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 chassis has the following connections:
Four 10GBaseER core connections in ports 3/4 , 3/8, 4/4, 4/8 (9024XL cards)
40 Copper 100BaseT connections for server aggregation (9048GT card)
How many Switch Fabric (SF) modules need to be installed in the roar of the chassis to
ensure that all of
the IO cards operate at full performance, even if a single SF modules fails (n + 1 SF
redundancy)?
A. Install three SFs in St modules 1, 2, 4.
B. Install four SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. Install five SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D. Install six SFs in SF modules 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
Answer: D

Avaya original questions   6102-1   6102-1 original questions   6102-1

NO.5 Which command can be used to determine the management IPv6 address on the
Virtual Services
Platform (VSP) O000?
A. Show interfaces mgmtEthernet 1/1
B. Show ip interface vrf mgmtRouter
C. Show ipv6 interface vrf mgmtRouter
D. Show ipv6 address interface
Answer: D

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NO.6 A Split Multi Link Trunking (SMIT) for switch clustering is being configured.
Which statement is a configuration requirement for the SMIT?
A. The CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the tote IST.
C. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via the DMLT
connection to add
resilient paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
D. Alternate the primary path of the SMLT connection Lo load balance the switch core.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in
the existing
Virtual Services Platform (VSP) 9000 core. The technician needs to configure VRF on the
VSP 9000.
Which statement represents the proper order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new
VRF.
D. Create VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP
address.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two management ports are available on the CP module? (Choose two.)
A. Serial interface
B. USB (host) interface
C. Ethernet interface
D. Modem interface
Answer: A,D

Avaya   6102-1   6102-1   6102-1

NO.9 Avaya recommends that the Switch Fabric (SF) modules be installed in both Slot SF1
and Slot SF4.
What is the reason behind this recommendation?
A. It provides optimal load balancing between the SF modules.
B. It provides redundancy tor the bandwidth management.
C. It takes full advantage of the orthogonal midplane architecture.
D. It provides redundancy in case of a power supply failure.
E. It provides lossless SF failover.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which types of packets will port mirroring not capture.?
A. Packets that are dropped on the ingress MAC
B. Packets that are destined for the standby CP
C. Packets that are properly forwarded through the VSP
D. Packets that have a destination address of 255.255.255.255
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 3200

Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)

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3200 (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/3200.html


NO.1 A technician wants to determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet
Messaging and Enhanced List Application Software.
On a Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in which location of the Web
Administration pages can this information be found?
A. Reports -> System Evaluation
B. Server Information -> Server Status
C. Utilities -> Messaging DB Audits
D. Logs -> Messaging Start-Up
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would
like to restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to
restoring their data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

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NO.3 A system can be set up to run on either S8730, S8800, or HP DL360 G7 hardware that is
configured to just SIP integration.
Which two statements are true about the number of voice channels that an individual Messaging
Application Server (MAS) can support? (Choose two.)
A. In a Single Server configuration, the MAS can support a maximum of 48 voice channels.
B. An individual MAS server can support up 120 voice channels.
C. An individual MAS server can support up to 96 voice channels.
D. An individual MAS server can allow as many possible connections as the bandwidth to the
allows
Answer: A,C

Avaya test questions   3200   3200 test questions   3200   3200 exam

NO.4 Which three statements are true about the Enhanced List Application (ELA) lists that can be
used? (Choose three.)
A. The administrator has to setup up an ELA shadow mailbox before users can send ELA
messages.
B. An ELA mailbox is like any other mailbox, allowing such operations as recording a name and a
greeting for the list, and allowing Call Answer messages to be distributed through ELA.
C. Administrators can restrict ELA lists so that users can't reply to messages they receive from the
list.
D. A Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MSS) system supports a maximum of 250
ELA list and each ELA list can have a maximum of 250 members.
E. ELA members must be local subscribers and cannot be arbitrary e-mail addresses.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is reporting a delay in receiving messages with their system. They have a 2
Messaging Application Server (MAS) and a Message Storage Server (MSS). The user did not
have any messages when leaving for the day. The next morning the message waiting indicator
was on, and the message was from a client that called the day before.
Which reports should be reviewed to troubleshoot this Issue?
A. Under Programs>Avaya Modular Messaging>Reporting Tools run the System Usage and U
Mailbox statistics reports.
B. Review the Administration History under Logs on the Message Store.
C. Review the Subscriber Activity log under Logs on the Message Store.
D. Review the Server Event log under Logs on the Message Store.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An installer is implementing a Modular Messaging Single Server configuration.
Which kind of file can the installer use to pre-populate data such as networking information in the
pre-installation web pages?
A. DCT
B. EPW
C. MSI
D. OVF
Answer: B

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NO.8 A technician is installing a service pack on a system that uses an Avaya Message Storage Server
(MSS) in a private Windows domain.
To ensure that the updates for the MSS are successfully Installed, on the Messaging Application
Server (MAS), which account should the installer log in as?
A. Corporate Domain User
B. Exchange Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Local Administrator
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration?
(Choose two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS)
NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 An installer is manually configuring an Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS). When setting up
the network addressing, the installer must enter a host name for the MSS.
What would be a valid MSS host name in an implementation that uses the Aria TUI?
A. MM52mss-corp
B. MM52mss[corp\]
C. MM52mss_corp
D. MM52mss@corp
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: 3103

Exam Name: Avaya (Radvision Scopia Solution for Video Communications Exam)

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NO.1 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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Exam Code: QAWI201V3.0

Exam Name: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0)

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NO.1 Which two operators are available when using wildcards in a query filter? (Choose two.)
A.LIKE
B.Matches Pattern
C.Not equals Pattern
D.Different from Pattern
Answer:B D

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NO.2 Which two options should you take before you finish creating a variable in Web Intelligence? (Choose
two.)
A.Save
B.Parse
C.Export
D.Validate
Answer:A D

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NO.3 Which object types can you merge when using Multi Queries in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A.Dimension - Detail
B.Measure - Measure
C.Dimension - Measure
D.Dimension - Dimension
Answer:D

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NO.4 Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A.Drag the queries together
B.Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C.Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D.Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which three types of local data files can you use to create a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0
document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A.TXT
B.XML
C.CSV
D.XLS
Answer:A C D

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NO.6 What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks,
without the ALT key selected?
A.A new block is created.
B.A new section is created.
C.An error message is displayed.
D.The currently selected cell is displayed.
Answer:B

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NO.7 Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A.In the cell
B.In the document
C.In the Metadata Cube
D.In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a
BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A.The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B.The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C.The query drill mode option is enabled.
D.The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Which three elements are parts of a query filter? (Choose three.)
A.Class
B.Object
C.Operator
D.Operand
Answer:B C D

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NO.10 You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use
to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A.Sum
B.Detail
C.Measure
D.Dimension
Answer:C

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NO.11 Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose
three.)
A.Top margin
B.Left margin
C.Page orientation
D.Background color
E.Visited hyperlink colors
Answer:A B C

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NO.12 Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A.Min
B.Max
C.Count
D.Count All
Answer:A B C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A.Used when any condition is met by two filters
B.Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C.Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D.Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Answer:B C

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NO.14 You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two
methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A.Rebuild the filters.
B.Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C.From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D.Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer:A D

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NO.15 Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of
your document data?
A.Document Palette
B.Document Formats
C.Display Preferences
D.Data Tracking Options
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which two panels can you use to purge data from a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document
(WID)? (Choose two.)
A.Query
B.Report
C.Active X
D.Slice and Dice
Answer:A B

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NO.17 Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A.Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B.Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C.Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D.Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A.Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B.In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C.Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D.Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI
3.0 document (WID)?
A.Advanced
B.Query
C.Active X
D.Interactive
Answer:D

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NO.20 Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A.Order Breaks
B.Vertical Breaks
C.Crosstab Breaks
D.Horizontal Breaks
Answer:B D

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